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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Unanswered Bible Questions Author: Setonahill Ordered by Date |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Who were the elect | Matt 24:22 | Setonahill | 224562 | ||
I find from the accounts found in the Gospels Jesus only used the word (ELECT) 4 times. From those 4 usages by Jesus how did anybody of the time know who He was referring to? When I look at it I can only think of 2 possible answers. 1) Jesus was referring to the Jews of that time as the Remnant who would gain their Salvation through Faith in their Messiah before the destruction of the Temple or as Jesus said Himself before that generation would pass away.(Mt.24:34) 2) Jesus was referring to everyone that would gain their Salvation both of the Jew and of the Gentile and this again would be before that generation would pass away. Mat 24:22 And except those days should be shortened, there should no flesh be saved: but for the elect's sake those days shall be shortened. Mat 24:24 For there shall arise false Christs, and false prophets, and shall shew great signs and wonders; insomuch that, if it were possible, they shall deceive the very elect. Mat 24:31 And he shall send his angels with a great sound of a trumpet, and they shall gather together his elect from the four winds, from one end of heaven to the other. Luk 18:7 And shall not God avenge his own elect, which cry day and night unto him, though he bear long with them? For clarification I have used only the verses from Mt. they are repeated in Mk. the verse from Lk. is not repeated in any of the other gospels. Mat 10:5 These twelve Jesus sent forth, and commanded them, saying, Go not into the way of the Gentiles, and into any city of the Samaritans enter ye not: Mat 10:6 But go rather to the lost sheep of the house of Israel. Mat 15:24 But he answered and said, I am not sent but unto the lost sheep of the house of Israel. Setonahill |
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2 | Jewish believers or not | 1 Pet 1:1 | Setonahill | 224482 | ||
According to Gal. 2:9 it was agreed that Peter would have his ministry to the Jews, while Paul's ministry would be to the gentiles. With this in mind, when Peter writes in 1 Pet.1 "to the strangers scattered throughout Pontus, Galatia, Cappadocia, Asia, and Bithynia," Can we assume that he was writing to Jewish believers? Setonahill |
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