Results 1 - 11 of 11
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Unanswered Bible Questions Author: JuanMas Ordered by Date |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | How are marriages created in the Bible | Ps 1:1 | JuanMas | 160079 | ||
What constitutes a marriage? I, like many of you learned that one got married by reciting “vows” before a priest, minister or other official in a marriage ceremony. However, as far as I know, The Bible does not call for or endorse such a ritual. Simply put, The Bible shows that a man and a woman must do only two things in order to be considered “married”: Cohabitate and Consummate. I offer the following as proof: [Deuteronomy 21:10-13] tells the story of a soldier who falls in love with a woman POW (prisoner of war) and provides strict instructions for making her his wife. Chief among them is to bring her to his home (cohabitation) to live and after a month “go in unto her” (consummation). [Genesis 29:20] refers to the marriage of Jacob to Rachel and her sister Leah. Again, the crucial ingredients were cohabitation (both women were brought to Jacob’s house to live) and consummation (Jacob had relations with both women). For those who want to argue that a wedding ceremony took place first during the feast, consider this – If Jacob was “tricked” into marrying Leah (he didn’t realize it until the next morning), there could not have been a wedding ceremony involving Jacob and Leah. That’s because her father delivered Leah first to be “deflowered” by Jacob and Jacob according to The Bible, did not realize this until the next morning. [Genesis 16:2] of course is the story of Abram and Sarai in which Sarai gave her maid, Hagar to her husband to be his wife. Again the pattern holds true – Cohabitation and Consummation. [Genesis 1:27] and finally, the original marriage that started it all – Adam and Eve. Are there any examples of vow exchanging ceremonys in the Bible that I might have missed? |
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2 | Did Michael Shiavo Commit Adultery? | Bible general Archive 3 | JuanMas | 159818 | ||
A friend of mine and I were discussing the Terry Shiavo case and debating whether or not Michael Shiavo committed adultery with the woman he was living with and had children with before his wife Terry died. Assuming this woman was "Biblically Single", what verse(s) in the Bible define Michael Shiavo's relationship with this woman as adultery. we have noticed how people make assumptions about what is and what is not in the Bible without knowing the facts. Fact: The Old Testament(Deu 22:23-24) defines adultery in terms of the marital status of the woman - not the man. If any man (married or single) has sex with a woman who is the wife or fiance of another man, it is called adultery. Fact: Mat 19:9 calls it adultery when a man divorces his wife for reasons other than fornication and marries another. It also states that adultery has occurred when any man marries a woman who is divorced. So with this background in mind, what verse(s) in the Bible would define Michael Shiavo's relationship with the "other woman" as adultery? Again remember the assumption is that she was "Biblically Single"(never married or engaged to another man). |
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3 | Did Michael Shiavo Commit Adultery? | Bible general Archive 3 | JuanMas | 159820 | ||
A friend of mine and I were discussing the Terry Shiavo case and debating whether or not Michael Shiavo committed adultery with the woman he was living with and had children with before his wife Terry died. Assuming this woman was "Biblically Single", what verse(s) in the Bible define Michael Shiavo's relationship with this woman as adultery. we have noticed how people make assumptions about what is and what is not in the Bible without knowing the facts. Fact: The Old Testament(Deu 22:23-24) defines adultery in terms of the marital status of the woman - not the man. If any man (married or single) has sex with a woman who is the wife or fiance of another man, it is called adultery. Fact: Mat 19:9 calls it adultery when a man divorces his wife for reasons other than fornication and marries another. It also states that adultery has occurred when any man marries a woman who is divorced. So with this background in mind, what verse(s) in the Bible would define Michael Shiavo's relationship with the "other woman" as adultery? Again remember the assumption is that she was "Biblically Single"(never married or engaged to another man). |
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4 | Are God's laws applicable to everyone? | Bible general Archive 2 | JuanMas | 154680 | ||
Are God's laws applicable to everyone or only to believers? Our discsssion group has been debating this issue for some time. I say they apply to all regardless while my pastor friend disagrees. I believe there is a difference between "applicablility" and "accountability". For example, two men commit the same sin (marry a divorced woman with a living ex - Mathew 19:9 and 5:32). One man does so "out of ignorance" while the other does so with "full knowledge" that they were doing wrong. The man who committed the sin "out of ignorance" according to the Bible would not be held accountable since he "did not know". On the other hand, the individual who committed the sin "knowing it was wrong" would be held accountable by God. Although both received different treatments, they both committed the same offense and broke the same law. In 1 Cor 7:12-15, Paul is addressing "mixed marriages" - that is a marriage between a "believer" and an "unbeliever". So what does Paul mean when he says that the remaining spouse is "no longer under bondage". It is my contention that Jesus' command that divorce only occur for the "cause of fornication" applies to both "believers" and "unbelievers" alike. And that the "divorced" wife, weather a "believer" or "unbeliever" is still required to adhere to 1 Cor 7:10-11 - "... remain single or reconcile ....". Therefore "no longer under bondage" cannot imply a violation of 1 Cor 7:10-11. |
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5 | Which Mat 18 verse are you referring to | Matt 19:9 | JuanMas | 115351 | ||
I read Mat 18 here on the Forum and found Mat 18:6-7 reinforced the points I have made concerning misleading the faithful: "Matt 18:6 but whoever causes one of these little ones who believe in Me to stumble, it would be better for him to have a heavy millstone hung around his neck, and to be drowned in the depth of the sea. Matt 18:7 "Woe to the world because of its stumbling blocks! For it is inevitable that stumbling blocks come; but woe to that man through whom the stumbling block comes!" Which verse or verses were you referring to specifically when you said "I suggest that if we as mature believers see a brother in a cycle of sin we would do well to follow Matthew chapter 18. I am not one to judge others sin, as much as I hope I am an encourager to those abiding in Christ". |
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6 | I'm confused about salvation | Matt 19:9 | JuanMas | 114360 | ||
I appreciate your explanation but please explain something to me. What's confusing to me is the notion of forgiveness. Why would Jesus say that "he who marries her who is divorced commits adultery"? (Mat 19:9). He even told the adulterous wife to "go and sin no more". I don't believe Jesus was inconsistent during his ministry. What he said early on was not contradicted by what he said later. My observation has been that from a practical perspective, many Christians find themselves caught in what I refer to as the "cycle of sin". This cycle consists of committing a sin, praying for forgiveness, living ok for a while then sinning again - repeating the cycle. An example of this is the "pedofile priest" situation in the Catholic Church. A priest commits a sin; is admonished; he prays for forgiveness; resumes his Church duties and ultimately sins again - thus repeating the cycle. Under the notion of forgiveness, it is said that you "become a new creature". But unfortunately in my opinion, some have taken this "too literally" and that's why the "pedofile priests" have been able to continue the "cycle of sin". So I'm confused. Why did Jesus state these rules for living if he knew you would not be held accountable? Is there a limit to the "cycle of sin"? How many times can one "knowingly" sin, seek forgiveness, et al and get a way with it? In the senario presented, my interpretation would have been that the "illegally" divorced wife would be required to follow 1 Cor 7:10-11. Mat 19:9 clearly states that "anyone who marries her who is divorced commits adultery". So in the situation in which one commits the sin anyway, what should one do? Go and sin no more! My understanding(?) is that receiving salvation wipes away the sin - puts you in a restored state prior to the sin. So in this case,"go and sin no more" would mean remain single or reconcile to your husband. If you become a widow in the mean time, you will be free to remarry. I would also hope that your husband would be willing to reconcile with you and end the state of adultery he is in. Some will say that this is harsh. However, my response would be to say "Just because your husband sinned doesn't mean that you have to sin also and risk your salvation". Or as others have put it, "Two wrongs don't make a right". If Jesus sacrificed his life for you, the least you can do is make the necessary sacrifices to remain righteous. |
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7 | Does abandoning make you an unbeliever | 1 Cor 7:15 | JuanMas | 113138 | ||
Are you saying that a Christian man who abandons his wife is an unbeliever? Please site the scripture you use to come to that conclusion. | ||||||
8 | is a disobedient christian an unbeliever | 1 Cor 7:15 | JuanMas | 61537 | ||
So does his willfull disobedience automatically make him an unbeliever? And can his wife now divorce him and remarry under 1 cor 7:15? By the way, I appreciate your taking time to respond to my question. I've been getting contradictory opinions on the subject and appreciate any clarification you may offer. |
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9 | If the husband refuses then what? | 1 Cor 7:15 | JuanMas | 61457 | ||
Suppose the man in scenario 1 refuses to reconcile with his wife? Then what? | ||||||
10 | What makes a christian an unbeliever? | 1 Cor 7:15 | JuanMas | 61432 | ||
Scenario 1: You have a christian married couple. The wife has a severe problem living beyond the couple's means and has mired herself and her husband in a mountain of credit card debt. The husband eventually gets fed up and leaves her. Is the husband automatically considered to be an unbeliever because he deserted his wife? If so, then why ? Scenario 2: Again you have a christian couple and the man bears false witness against someone. Does this automatically make the husband an unbeliever? If so why? |
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11 | Can a single man commit adultery? | Gen 2:24 | JuanMas | 57888 | ||
Can a single man commit adultery? | ||||||