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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Unanswered Bible Questions Author: Ian Goddard Ordered by Date |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | So why did the NASB use "other"? | 1 Cor 11:16 | Ian Goddard | 149437 | ||
G'day Tim, thanks for your work. So the NASB ought to have translated it as,"We have no such practice!". So I'm still left wondering why they translated it as,"we have no other practice". I would ask the translation commitee but i can't find the email for them. I guess I'll have to resort to snail mail. God bless, Ian |
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2 | why is toiauten translated 'other' here | 1 Cor 11:16 | Ian Goddard | 149376 | ||
Given that the Greek text reads "hemeis toiauten sunetheiav ouk ekomen", I was wondering why the NASB has translated this phrase as, "we have no OTHER practice, " instead of "we have no SUCH practice". As far as I can tell, in every case in the NT where "toiauten" and cognates is found, the NASB has translated it as, "such" or "like". I have only been studying Greek for a short while and would appreciate any light on this matter. | ||||||