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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Unanswered Bible Questions Author: Bobby1971 Ordered by Date |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Rhantizo vs. Baptizo- Synonyms? | NT general | Bobby1971 | 198403 | ||
I noticed that the NASB uses a Greek translation that has "rhantizo" (sprinkle) for the Jewish practice of washing themselves prior to eating after they come from the market in Mark 7:4. Luke 11:38, however, apparently describing the same practice translates from the Greek "baptizo". Would it be proper to make the case, then, that baptizo could also cover the particular mode of sprinkling? Interestingly, the John MacArthur Study Bible has a note for Luke 11:38 that refers the reader back to Mark 7:3. The study note there describes the practice of the Jews pouring water over their hands before they eat. The fact that baptizo is used in Luke 11:38 and then the Study Bible directs the reader to a note describing pouring makes it sound like baptizo was also used to describe washing/cleansing when this occured from pouring. Any ideas on how to ascertain the true meaning of baptizo? If baptizo and rhantizo are being used to describe the same ritual, does this mean that they are synonyms? Thanks for the help. |
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2 | Baptize all "Nations" and Infants? | NT general | Bobby1971 | 198389 | ||
I recently came across a Lutheran explanation of why they teach that they should baptize infants. They refer to the Great Commission in Matthew 28:19. They claim that since Jesus says to baptize all "nations", which means all people, and since infants are people, then infants should be baptized. John Gill, however, claims that the underlying Greek makes that interpretation impossible, but the Lutherans also argue from the Greek that their interpretation is correct. Can anyone with more knowledge about how Greek is used shed some light on this debate? Thank you for the time and help. Here is the Lutheran explanation: "In the Greek, the words translated "make disciples" is a verb which means "to teach, to instruct" and then, since this verb refers to a specialized kind of teaching or instructing, that is instructing people who are followers or discples of the one who is teaching, it can be translated in English as "to make disciples." So there is no noun in Greek for the English word "disciples" to refer to. Note some other translations, such as the KJV, which translate this verse "Go and teach all nations, baptizing them etc." Thus the Greek word for "them" (though it is masculine), can only refer to "all nations" since this is the only noun for the pronoun to refer back to. The word for "all nations" is indeed neuter gender in Greek, but since it refers to people, the pronoun referring back to it can be either be masculine or neuter in Greek. A couple other examples of a NT writer using a masculine pronoun to refer back to the Greek word ethnee (which can be translated either as "nations" or "Gentiles" depending on the context) are Acts 15:17 and Acts 26:17. More examples could be given, so it is wrong to say that the masculine pronoun "them" in Matthew 28:19 can't refer to "nations." And, as was noted above, it can't refer to "disciples" since there is no noun for this word in Greek to which the pronoun could refer." |
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3 | Pronouns in NASB? | Bible general Archive 4 | Bobby1971 | 197716 | ||
Hello, I'm new to this forum and have recently purchased a NASB Bible. On the Lockman Foundation's website, the following is said with respect to the NASB Update: "Proper names or titles have been used in place of pronouns only when the context made it clear who the person was..." Does anyone know exactly what this means? Would this mean that a masculine pronoun referring to God would be, or could have been, replaced with a "gender neutral" term like "God"? If the Hebrew uses pronouns, why not continue to do so? Thanks, Bobby |
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