Results 1 - 2 of 2
|
|
|||||
Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | KJV Only Help | Bible general Archive 4 | G. Preston | 232942 | ||
Tim Moran, I see very little from new versions which add to better understanding of G-d's word. The greatest motovation is money and individual/sect glory by sales of a new editions...many others are in the making...I assure you. Each time there is a find in the HolyLand/world...new editions are put in the works. Addendums with reference to and from the new findings would be better received. Even the 16th century KJV was politically motovated....it seems....I concluded ...long ago. I study all...but, when an edition converts...say....G-d to G-ds...(example) that is enough for me...I will not use are recommend it. |
||||||
2 | KJV Only Help | Bible general Archive 4 | danjg | 232965 | ||
I'm curious about your "G-d to G-ds" issue! First, in my NASB "gods" is never capitalized and is never used of JEHOVAH, but only of pagan "deities." Second, Gen 3:5 seems to contradict your contention: "For God doth know that in the day ye eat thereof, then your eyes shall be opened, and ye shall be as gods, knowing good and evil." KJV "For God know that in the day you eat from it your eyes will be opened, and you will be like God, knowing good and evil." NASB It seems obvious that Satan was referring to God not gods b/c why would Adam and Eve know anything about "gods?" Maybe you're thinking of Daniel 3:25 where Nebuchadnezzar sees a fourth person in the fiery furnace as the "Son of God" (KJV) or "son of the gods" (NASB). The question is, as a pagan king, what would he know about the Son of God? But it's clear he understands that the 4th person is some type of deity, therefore, the latter translation seems best! |
||||||