Results 1 - 3 of 3
|
|
|||||
Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | KJV Only Help | Bible general Archive 4 | Morant61 | 232949 | ||
Greetings Preston! Could you give me the reference for the change from 'God' to 'Gods'? Without knowing the reference, all I can say in general is that 'elohim' (the Hebrew word for God) is a plural noun in form. When it is used with singular verbs, it is usually translated as 'God', but when used with plural verbs, it is usually translated as 'gods'. When you provide the specific reference, we will probably find a textual reason for the change. I agree with you that some translations are motivated for the wrong reasons, but there are many that are done for the right reasons as well. Whatever the reason, God's word is still powerful and will not return void. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
||||||
2 | KJV Only Help | Bible general Archive 4 | G. Preston | 232950 | ||
Tim Moran, Let's do this by steps; please study Malachi 3;6 G-d has many names. To me all sacred and are used in for contextual reasons... including 'Elohim'. A "textual reason"...Please explain? G-ds....http://www.av1611.org/biblecom.html....et al. Let me know.... if you need more. |
||||||
3 | KJV Only Help | Bible general Archive 4 | DocTrinsograce | 232953 | ||
Why do the Apostles themselves use the generic Theos... as adopted in the Septuagint instead of Greek transliterated Tetragrammaton? | ||||||