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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | KJV Only Help | Bible general Archive 4 | Morant61 | 232940 | ||
Greetings Preston! You said in your post: I am sure you are aware but, for reminders to all of us the origional KJV was brought about by the king of england who assembled the greatest scholars known at the time, who used the only known to man... manuscripts. I don't know how much closer we will ever be able to come to the origional Word. Please answer a question for me...we have one from the origional manuscripts...why is another/new one necessary...for what purpose?"" The KJV New Testament text was actually based upon the greek text of Erasmus. His first edition was put together in only 5 months, and he only had a handful of greek manuscripts available to him, the oldest of which dated to the 10th century. So, as much good as has been accomplish by and through the KJV, it certainly is not the closest we have to the original manuscripts. We now have thousands of manuscripts from which to work, some of which date back to the 1st century. So, modern translation have a tremendous advantage when it comes to source material. Now, now all modern translations are good. :-) I would not use the TNIV as a door stop. ;-) But, almost all of them are much closer to the originals than the KJV. p.s. - Here is a link that details the manuscripts used for the KJV: http://www.bibletexts.com/kjv-tr.htm Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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2 | KJV Only Help | Bible general Archive 4 | G. Preston | 232942 | ||
Tim Moran, I see very little from new versions which add to better understanding of G-d's word. The greatest motovation is money and individual/sect glory by sales of a new editions...many others are in the making...I assure you. Each time there is a find in the HolyLand/world...new editions are put in the works. Addendums with reference to and from the new findings would be better received. Even the 16th century KJV was politically motovated....it seems....I concluded ...long ago. I study all...but, when an edition converts...say....G-d to G-ds...(example) that is enough for me...I will not use are recommend it. |
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3 | KJV Only Help | Bible general Archive 4 | Morant61 | 232949 | ||
Greetings Preston! Could you give me the reference for the change from 'God' to 'Gods'? Without knowing the reference, all I can say in general is that 'elohim' (the Hebrew word for God) is a plural noun in form. When it is used with singular verbs, it is usually translated as 'God', but when used with plural verbs, it is usually translated as 'gods'. When you provide the specific reference, we will probably find a textual reason for the change. I agree with you that some translations are motivated for the wrong reasons, but there are many that are done for the right reasons as well. Whatever the reason, God's word is still powerful and will not return void. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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4 | KJV Only Help | Bible general Archive 4 | G. Preston | 232950 | ||
Tim Moran, Let's do this by steps; please study Malachi 3;6 G-d has many names. To me all sacred and are used in for contextual reasons... including 'Elohim'. A "textual reason"...Please explain? G-ds....http://www.av1611.org/biblecom.html....et al. Let me know.... if you need more. |
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5 | KJV Only Help | Bible general Archive 4 | DocTrinsograce | 232953 | ||
Why do the Apostles themselves use the generic Theos... as adopted in the Septuagint instead of Greek transliterated Tetragrammaton? | ||||||