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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | KJV Only Help | Bible general Archive 4 | ccfromsc | 232896 | ||
Can you help me with the KJV Only? They are driving me nuts. They say your version is of the "devil" and you followed "corrupted" manuscripts. Do you have anything to counter their accusations? | ||||||
2 | KJV Only Help | Bible general Archive 4 | sethknorr | 232939 | ||
Welcome to the forum. I have relatives that are KJV only and believe that the translation is an inspired translation. As you have heard, you can't argue with the KJV only group that can convince them. Three points though, if you would like some evidence to the contrary. Point one No mater what people say all translations have there own slant. This can be necessary because there are Greek and Hebrew words that don't have exact parallels to English. However, there are some that do, and to give one example where the KJV translators put there own slant on things is Daniel 9:24. They translated the Hebrew word Kaphar, as reconciliation, where as all other translations translate the same Hebrew word as Atonement. This is one situation where they are using the same Hebrew word from the "original" transcript, but come to a different translation. All other mentions of the word in the KJV are translated "to purge" or as "atonement", as it should have been here. Reconciliation is a new Testament term and concept that they where reading into the text. Point two The original 1611 KJV and subsequent versions of the KJV had errors. If it was truly inspired it would not have errors. Here is a list of a few of the errors. 1611: The KJV has Judas, not Jesus, saying "Sit ye here while I go yonder and pray." (Matthew 26:36) 1612: In some copies Psalm 119:161 reads "Printers have persecuted me without a cause" rather than "Princes have persecuted me..." 1631: An all important "not" is omitted from Exodus 20:14, making the seventh commandment read "Thou shalt commit adultery." Point three There were so many erroneous KJV translations, that a standard text was created in 1769 and is what is used today. So people who say they are 1611 are really 1769 KJV only. So if it was really an inspired translation why the errors? And why not use the real 1611 still? In Christ, Seth Knorr |
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