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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | The error addressed in 2 Peter | Bible general Archive 4 | Beja | 224811 | ||
Doc, Two things: 1.) You said, "Remember, in Judaic thinking, Gentiles are not subject to the Mosaic Law, only to the Nohaic Law." Can you elaborate on that? I've never heard anybody say such a thing and would love to better understand what you are saying. 2.) The reason I suspect antinomianism is a big error in Peter's mind isn't based on the use of any given greek word. Rather it seems to be the cumulative sum of the book. First, it seems clear that the people he are rebuking are actually in the Church. So they are professing Christians. Second, he repeatedly focuses on how they eagerly sin. He focuses on it so much in fact, that it begins to feel like that is actually the error he is rebuking and not simply that the main error is accompanied by this rampant sin. I actually begin to feel like the error of the teaching is that it allows that. Also, in the first chapter when he is giving positive advice rather than rebuking, it still seems he is speaking against a Christian life that continues in sin. Then I see its close parallels to Jude, who seems to focus on the same three major errors that 2 Peter does, and I read in Jude 4, "For certain people have crept in unnoticed who long ago were designated for this condemnation, ungodly people, who pervert the grace of our God into sensuality and deny our only Master and Lord, Jesus Christ." Now turning grace into licentousness really sounds like their teaching turned the grace of God into license to sin. This is why I ask the question. Though to be clear, I would not and do not suggest that antinomianism is the only error being addressed in the book. In Christ, Beja |
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2 | The error addressed in 2 Peter | Bible general Archive 4 | DocTrinsograce | 224819 | ||
Dear Beja, Regarding your question #1: Rabbinical teaching asserts that the truth of Torah is for all men. However, the Mosaic Law is for Jews, although they will readily admit that benefits accrue to anyone complying with them. Briefly, the thinking runs along these lines: God gave six laws through Adam, all are descended from Adam, therefore those laws apply to all men. God gave seven laws through Noah -- reiterating the six and adding another. (These are referred to as the "Noachide Law".) Since all men are descended from Noah, those laws apply to everyone. In the Siniac revelation, God gave laws through Moses to the sons of Israel (Leviticus 26:46) -- reiterating the seven, and adding others. It is taught that Gentiles who faithfully follow the seven laws, will achieve a place in heaven. (Such Gentiles are called B'nai Noach. There are even Rabbis who have outreach to non-Jews, instructing them on how to live compliantly with the seven laws.) (By the way, this may also help you understand why Jews do not find proselytizing important. They deem that, after all, if you were really one of God's chosen, you would have been born that way.) I can dig up references if you want them. This question has been debated since the time of Moses, and I have heard Rabbis discuss it as recently as a few months ago. :-) Disclaimer: Although I am Jewish, as a Christian, I do not hold to these auto-soteriological teachings, nor do I believe that they are in harmony with Scripture. I am simply reporting them as you requested. In Him, Doc |
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3 | The error addressed in 2 Peter | Bible general Archive 4 | Beja | 224820 | ||
Doc, Acts 15 had immediately come to my mind and compelled me to ask! In Christ, Beja |
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