Results 1 - 3 of 3
|
|
|||||
Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Did John really baptise Jesus?? | Bible general Archive 4 | BradK | 223534 | ||
Hello lightedsteps You are fundamentally in error my friend! Yes, Jesus was fully God and fully man- yet without sin or a sin nature! This is made abundantly clear in scripture! I urge you to think through this dilemma you've put yourself in. If Jesus had sin - or a sin nature- He could not have been truly God or our Saviour and died for us! As Charles Hodge notes, there were 3 conditions Christ had to fulfill to be our Mediator: "What those qualifications are, the scriptures clearly teach"- 1. "He must be a man. The Apostle assigns as the reason why Christ assumed our nature and not the nature of angels, that He came to redeem us. (Hebrews 2: 14–16). It was necessary that He should be made under the law which we had broken; that He should fulfil all righteousness; that He should suffer and die; that He should be able to sympathize in all the infirmities of his people, and that He should be united to them in a common nature. He who sanctifies (purifies from sin both as guilt and as pollution) and those who are sanctified are and must be of one nature. Therefore as the children were partakers of flesh and blood, He also took part of the same. (Hebrews 2: 11–14.) 2. The Mediator between God and man must be sinless. Under the law the victim offered on the altar must be without blemish. Christ, who was to offer Himself unto God as a sacrifice for the sins of the world, must be Himself free from sin. The High Priest, therefore, who becomes us, He whom our necessities demand, must be holy, harmless, undefiled, and separate from sinners. (Hebrews vii. 26.) He was, therefore, “without sin.” (Hebrews iv. 15; 1 Peter ii. 22.) A sinful Saviour from sin is an impossibility. He could not have access to God. He could not be a sacrifice for sins; and He could not be the source of holiness and eternal life to his people. 3. It was no less necessary that our Mediator should be a divine person. The blood of no mere creature could take away sin. It was only because our Lord was possessed of an eternal Spirit that the one offering of Himself has forever perfected them that believe. None but a divine person could destroy the power of Satan and deliver those who were led captive by him at his will. None but He who had life in Himself could be the source of life, spiritual and eternal, to his people. None but an almighty person could control all events to the final consummation of the plan of redemption, and could raise the dead; and infinite wisdom and knowledge are requisite in Him who is to be judge of all men, and the head over all to his Church. None but one in whom dwelt all the fulness of the Godhead could be the object as well as the source of the religious life of all the redeemed. [Hodge, C. (1997). Vol. 2: Systematic theology (457). Oak Harbor, WA: Logos Research Systems, Inc.] Speaking the Truth in Love, BradK |
||||||
2 | Did John really baptise Jesus?? | Bible general Archive 4 | lightedsteps | 223567 | ||
Brother Brad Having a sin nature is not sin, or sinning. When we look in the bible, we don't find either “sin nature”, or “original sin” both of these terms have been devised to explain to ourselves as humans, a dynamic which cannot be explained in the physical realm, because it is a Spiritual happening (event), man has come to these terms by using selected verses for our own understanding. The sin nature, is nothing more than having a propensity toward sin, but having this tendency is not, in and of itself sinning. Although "WE HAVE" all sinned, coming short of the glory of God. This sin nature passes on to us "Spiritually", the original sin of Adam is not a physical thing, therefore it cannot be passed on to us through genetics. We acquire this sin nature (original sin) "Spiritually" simply by the fact "WE are all the descendants of Adam. In looking at Romans 7:13–25 we find these sinful tendencies as being part of the flesh, what Paul calls the (sarx in Greek), which means the flesh or body. Rom 7:18 For I know that in me (that is, in my flesh,) dwelleth no good thing: for to will is present with me; but how to perform that which is good I find not. This is the place we find ourselves to be in, but we only have one nature, but God be Praised, in Jesus physical body also dwelled "GOD". Mat 1:23 Behold, a virgin shall be with child, and shall bring forth a son, and they shall call his name Emmanuel, which being interpreted is, God with us. Therefore being GOD, Incarnate, He was able to keep Himself from sinning. You seemed to have missed the point, Jesus was totally, Man, and totally God. This means Jesus had two diametrically opposed natures, the nature of man, (sin nature) and the Nature of God, Divine nature. This would mean that no matter how depraved the nature of man might be, the Divine nature of God is greater, thereby able to overcome any temptation to sin. Now using ourselves as comparison, the life we now live, is the same life Jesus was able to live. 2Pe 1:4 Whereby are given unto us exceeding great and precious promises: that by these ye might be partakers of the divine nature, having escaped the corruption that is in the world through lust. 1Co 10:13 There hath no temptation taken you but such as is common to man: but God is faithful, who will not suffer you to be tempted above that ye are able; but will with the temptation also make a way to escape, that ye may be able to bear it. When we receive salvation, we are freed from sin through Christ. Rom 6:7 For he that is dead is freed from sin. If we are able to live a sinless life, while still in the flesh, because we have become partakers of the Divine Nature of God, how much more was Christ preserved blameless by this same Divine Nature which indwelt Him? Therefore Jesus can have the sin nature of man, and still not sin. Grace be unto you lightedsteps |
||||||
3 | Did John really baptise Jesus?? | Bible general Archive 4 | Beja | 223568 | ||
Lightedsteps, There is so much I want to say, but let me just this time simply try to reduce it to bare logic to show that what you are saying doesn't work. 1. Sin nature (whatever it is) Came as a result of something Adam did. 2. If it came as a result of something he did, then he, and as an extension, humanity existed prior to sin nature. 3. If Humanity existed prior to sin nature, then it must be possible to be both fully human and without a sin nature. Otherwise Adam wasn't human until he sinned, and nobody believes that. (as an aside: I do not mean that it is possible for you and I right now at this time. But I simply mean to show that at some time or place Human Nature does not equal Sin nature.) 4. If it is possible to be fully human and yet without a sin nature, then it is possible for Jesus Christ to be fully human without a sin nature. 5. If it is possible for Jesus Christ to be fully human yet without a sin nature, then all your arguements of how he MUST have had a sin nature merely because he was human are therefore invalid. In Christ, Beja |
||||||