Results 1 - 8 of 8
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Gift of speaking in tongues for all? | Bible general Archive 3 | kalos | 167947 | ||
Likewise the Spirit also helps in our weaknesses. For we do not know what we should pray for as we ought, but the Spirit Himself makes intercession for us with groanings which cannot be uttered Romans 8:26 King James Version NASB Romans 8:26 In the same way the Spirit also helps our weakness; for we do not know how to pray as we should, but the Spirit Himself intercedes for us with groanings too deep for words; Ashbury: These people continue to misquote Scripture in a futile attempt to prove their pet doctrine, their denominational bias, whatever you want to call it. I call it just plain bad doctrine. One writes: "Also in Rom 8:26 Paul says that through praying in the Holy Ghost, or praying in other tongues, however you chose to phrase it, the Spirit helps our infirmites because we know not what we should pray for as we ought." But God says: "...the Spirit Himself makes intercession for us with groanings which cannot be uttered" Romans 8:26 King James Version In Romans 8:26 it does not say that we pray THROUGH (or IN) the Holy Spirit or that the Holy Spirit prays THROUGH us. What it says is: "the Spirit Himself makes intercession FOR us". FOR us, not THROUGH us and not IN us. In this verse (v. 28) how does He make intercession for us? In words (language)? No, but "with groanings which cannot be uttered." Groanings -- not words. Not a tongue (a language). And such groanings cannot be spoken, cannot be uttered. As the Amplified says, "with unspeakable yearnings and groanings too deep for utterance." Unspeakable yearnings. How does one SPEAK of things that are unspeakable? How does one UTTER that which is too deep for utterance? Grace to you, Kalos |
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2 | Gift of speaking in tongues for all? | Bible general Archive 3 | Morant61 | 167961 | ||
Greetings Kalos! Just to add another perspective on Rom. 8:26, Leon Morris makes the following comments. "There is no way of deciding the question with finality, but perhaps there is a little more to be said for the view that the groans are uttered by the believer. The Spirit is not said to groan, but to intercede 'with' or 'in' groans, and these may well be those of the beleiver. Paul seems to be saying that when we cannot find words in which to express our prayer and can do no better than make inarticulate sounds, the Spirit takes those sounds and makes them into effective intercession." Now, Morris is not pentecostal. So, he also says, "Some exegetes regard this as a form of praying in 'tongues'. Thus Kasemann thinks it makes sense if 'what is at issue is the praying in tongues of 1 Cor. 14:15' (p. 241). But there seems little reason to hold such a view. Charismatic praying may well be included, but Paul's words are wide enough to cover 'all praying of Christian men' (Cranfield)." The text simply isn't clear enough to be definitative either way. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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3 | Gift of speaking in tongues for all? | Bible general Archive 3 | kalos | 167966 | ||
Tim: Thanks for sharing that with us. I did a little research and came up with the following Bible FACT. There is only one mention of the word "tongues" in the ENTIRE BOOK of Romans. There is absolutely NO MENTION of the word "tongues" in Romans chapter 8. Their throat is an open sepulchre; with their tongues they have used deceit; the poison of asps is under their lips: Romans 3:13 (KJV) The word "tongue" (singular) does appear once in the book of Romans, but in the context it has absolutely nothing to do with tongues (known or unknown), languages or the gift of tongues. For it is written, As I live, saith the Lord, every knee shall bow to me, and every tongue shall confess to God. Ro 14:11 (KJV) The CONCEPT of speaking in tongues may or may not be found in Romans, but the word "TONGUES" (referring to the gift of tongues) just isn't there. I'm not at all challenging what you posted. I'm merely pointing out a FACT about the actual text of Romans. Grace to you, Kalos |
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4 | Gift of speaking in tongues for all? | Bible general Archive 3 | Morant61 | 167968 | ||
Greetings Kalos! I am not one to argue with facts! :-) It is interesting that the word tongue only occurs twice in Romans, but it is only used 50 times in the entire NT and 19 of those are in 1 Corinthians. It is a bit surprising that the second most occurances of the word are found in Revelation (8 times), even more than the six occurances in Acts. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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5 | Gift of speaking in tongues for all? | Bible general Archive 3 | mitchm0521 | 167971 | ||
If God said something once, its important. I'm not sure what counting the number of times something is said tells us. It certainly doesn't mean praying in tongues is unimportant. Because if thats someones theory, then repentance isn't important, that word is used less than tongues. God Bless, Mitch |
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6 | Gift of speaking in tongues for all? | Bible general Archive 3 | Morant61 | 167976 | ||
Greetings Mitch! The number of times is only important in several ways. 1) The more often a word or term is used the easier it is to define it's meaning. There are some words in the NT that never occur anywhere else (as far as we know) in Greek literature. In those cases, it is very difficult to even know what the word means. 2) Secondly, different authors can use words in different ways. So, examining how a word is used in different books can be very enlightening. 3) The number of times a word is used can indicate it's importance to a particular author. This doesn't mean that less frequent words are unimportant, but that the themes behind them simply may not be used as often by one author as opposed to another. However, if a word or phrase is used seldom, it would certainly be one indicatation that it was not as important as other concepts. For instance, the various forms of 'repent', 'repentance', ect..., occur 74 times in the NIV. So, it would be an important word. But, Kalos' point was simply that the concept of 'tongues' is not mentioned in Romans at all (though some would argue that Rom. 8:26 is a possible exception). Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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7 | Gift of speaking in tongues for all? | Bible general Archive 3 | mitchm0521 | 167994 | ||
You said if a word or phrase is used seldom, it would certainly be one indication that it was not as important as other concepts. There is four places in the Word where God uses Alpha and Omega to describe himself. So is that not important? My point here is, I don't care if something is used only one. If God wrote it, its just as important as if he had wrote it a thousand times. To say anything is less important than another thing in the Word, is absurd. Every single letter of the Word of God is important, its a law brother, a law that we should all be living by. God Bless, Mitch |
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8 | Gift of speaking in tongues for all? | Bible general Archive 3 | warsaw | 167999 | ||
I agree with you completly when you say, "Every single letter of the Word of God is important". Some are chrismatic... others are not. It's a matter of what a person believes the word says. Speaking in tongues is a secondary issue. The important thing is who Jesus is and what he means to us. We are ALL brothers and sisters in Christ. It's interesting to hear other peoples opinions about what the Word says. We have to be careful not to scripture pluck. (you know when a person "plucks" a scripture from here and there and builds a belief system that is totally out of context.) Each book in the Bible had a reason. Each sentence is not exclusive of all the others around it. For example: In 1 Cor 14:14, "For if I pray in a tongue, my spirit prays, but my mind is unfruitful." In other words, if I am praying in a language that I do not understand (nor the people around me), then "my" spirit prays, but I don't know what I am saying. He did not say "the Holy Spirit" is praying through me. In Romans 8:26, "In the same way, the Spirit helps us in our weakness. We do not know what we ought to pray for, but the Spirit himself intercedes for us with groans that words cannot express." This is clearly refering to the Holy Spirit because it refers to "himself". In 1 Corinthians, the church had some serious issues, one of which was Spiritual Gifts. It appears that people were especially abusing the gift of Speaking in Tongues. That's why he makes the reference in 1 Cor 14:14. (In my opinion). Your brother in Christ, mike |
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