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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | holy spirit vs. holy ghost | NT general Archive 1 | rgb | 149217 | ||
Any difference between "holy spirit" and "holy ghost"? | ||||||
2 | holy spirit vs. holy ghost | NT general Archive 1 | Morant61 | 149218 | ||
Greetings RGB! Nope! The words in the Greek are the same exact words 'hagios pneuma'. The only difference is that the older translations sometimes choose 'ghost' instead of 'spirit' to translate 'pneuma'. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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3 | holy spirit vs. holy ghost | NT general Archive 1 | rgb | 149240 | ||
But sometimes the definite article is missing (47x), and the Watchtower Society claims: "thus indicating its LACK of personality". Mt.1:18,20; 3:11; Mk.1:8; Lk.1:15,35,41,67; 2:25; 3:16; 4:1; 11:13; Jn.1:35; 20:22; Acts 1:2,5; 2:4; 4:8,25 etc. | ||||||
4 | holy spirit vs. holy ghost | NT general Archive 1 | Morant61 | 149244 | ||
Greetings RGB! The Watchtower Society is not a good source for reliable Greek information! ;-) When the definite article is used with the word 'rock', does that indicate that the rock has a personality? ;-) Allow me to provide a couple of instances where the definite article is not used with 'theos', yet God the Father is intended: 1) Mark 12:27 - "'He is not the God of the dead, but of the living. You are badly mistaken!'" There is no 'the' before God in the Greek. 2) 1 Cor. 8:6 - "yet for us there is but one God, the Father, from whom all things came and for whom we live; and there is but one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom all things came and through whom we live." 3) 2 Cor. 1:21 - " Now it is God who makes both us and you stand firm in Christ. He anointed us," 4) 2 Cor. 5:5 - " Now it is God who has made us for this very purpose and has given us the Spirit as a deposit, guaranteeing what is to come." 5) 2 Cor. 5:19 - "that God was reconciling the world to himself in Christ, not counting men’s sins against them. And he has committed to us the message of reconciliation." All of these examples are examples of 'theo' uses without the definite article, but yet clearly refering to the Person of God the Father. Simply put, the Watchtower Society is wrong about their Greek facts, as is often the case! ;-) Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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5 | holy spirit vs. holy ghost | NT general Archive 1 | rgb | 149263 | ||
You make a good point but is there more to it? When the article is absent, "force" not a "person" is the focus. For example: Baptized In/With Mt.3:11; Mk.1:8 - Power of Lk.1:35; Rom.15:13,19 - Full Of/Filled With Lk.1:15,41,67; 4:1 - Given/Rec'd Lk.11:3; Jn.20:22 - Come Upon Lk.1:35; 2:25 - Through/By Mt.1:18,20 Acts 1:2 - With/In/Of Acts 10:38; Rom.9:1. | ||||||
6 | holy spirit vs. holy ghost | NT general Archive 1 | Morant61 | 149266 | ||
Greetings RGB! I think you missed my point my friend! ;-) The definite article does not indicate 'person', and the lack of the definite article does not indicate 'force'. The examples I provided are all instances where 'theos' is used without the article, yet the Person of the Father is clearly in view. In the same way, the phrase 'Holy Spirit' without the article does not indicate a force. The most that could be said is that when the 'Holy Spirit' is not the subject or the object of the sentence, the definite article does not usually appear to be used. But, this does not indicate that a 'force' is being indicated. The Greek definite article does not meake that kind of distinction. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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