Results 1 - 5 of 5
|
|
|||||
Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | When did God change "mode" of baptism? | Bible general Archive 1 | Taleb | 77186 | ||
When did God change the "mode" of baptism today from what it was in Moses’ day, and John the Baptist’s day? Seeing immersion (mikvah) still hasn’t changed for the Jews since it was instituted about the time of their exodus from Egypt. |
||||||
2 | When did God change "mode" of baptism? | Bible general Archive 1 | Mommapbs | 77187 | ||
Taleb - Without wanting to enter into the fracas about baptism I would like some clarification from you. It is my understanding that baptism was used in the Old Testament when one outside of Israel wanted to follow Jehovah; is this correct? If so, did the physical action of baptism make one an Israelite? In other words, if you took a white cloth and dipped it in red dye, what kind of cloth is it white or red? What was the purpose of baptism - has it changed? Thanks for considering my questions. mommapbs |
||||||
3 | When did God change "mode" of baptism? | Bible general Archive 1 | Taleb | 77198 | ||
mommapbs, You are correct (sort of) that baptism was used in the Old Testament when someone wanted to "convert". And I said "sort of" because it STILL is how one "converts” to Judaism. To answer your 2nd question - yes, the physical action MADE/MAKES them a "Hebrew". Even today, when someone "converts" to Judaism they are “proclaimed” to be the son, or daughter, of Abraham and Sarah. The reason why they become “children” of Abraham is because before God called Abraham to be the father, and Sarah the mother, of the Hebrews, they both were “Gentiles”. They “became” Hebrews. NO convert IS ever called one after they "convert". They are as though they were born into it. That's why so many of them call it "being born again." Interesting, don't you think? Has the purpose of baptism changed is hard to answer. It depends if you mean has God’s purpose changed, or has “the Church’s” purpose changed. God’s remains the same. The church’s – well – we are having a conversation that we wouldn’t be having if it hadn’t changed. Your question: “if you took a white cloth and dipped it in red dye, what kind of cloth is it white or red?” instantly brought to mind one of my favorite, (from thousands) :) promises from God’s precious word “Though MY sins be as scarlet, (red, if you will) they SHALL be made white as snow.” So I guess I will have to give you a “scriptural answer”. The “cloth” God would make white. P.S. I sure appreciate you, mommapds, and you are MOST welcome. Taleb |
||||||
4 | Is "mikvah" in the Law or tradition? | Bible general Archive 1 | Searcher56 | 77216 | ||
Word study ... mikvah (Strong's 04348) ... Mikvah means "burnt spot, burn scar" and is found in Leviticus 13:24, 25, 28. I did some research. I always check out what people say, to see if it is true. Leviticus 11:36 is quoted. However, the word is miqveh. And God called the dry land Earth; and the gathering (miqveh) together of the waters called he Seas: and God saw that it was good (Gen 1:10). In Exodus 7:19 it is the pools of water, that were turned to blood. It is linen yarn (1Ki 10:28) I didn't find where God had a person get in water. Can you cite in the OT, where God did so? I believe it was oral tradition, not the Law. |
||||||
5 | Is "mikvah" in the Law or tradition? | Bible general Archive 1 | greatfullydead | 77223 | ||
What about naaman | ||||||