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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Jewish believers or not | 1 Pet 1:1 | Setonahill | 224510 | ||
Beja As you have said "Its not an issue of Hebrew Grammar" although the Hebrew Grammar did clear up the issue of who actually was being spoken to in Hosea 1:9 allow me to expand on your statement if I may. It's also not an issue of "Theology, or even the Promises of God" the issue at hand is the question I originally asked no.224482 if you or anyone else would care to answer this question It would be much appreciated. I asked this question in an attempt to ascertain whether or not Peter was possibly writing to Jewish believers in Christ that might have been caught up in the Diaspora. In my study I have found that it is unclear as to where Peter wrote this letter and that the date of his writing is unsure as well. To quell any misconceptions that might have occurred. I fully agree and whole heartedly concur with your statement regarding Dispensationalism. "In my opinion this thinking is demonstratively in opposition to what scripture teaches." I am not interested in furthering the discussion on the correctness of Gills Exposition as it is not germane to my question. I thank everyone that has participated in this thread and the opinions they expressed. At this point reread my question and if anyone would like to make a comment I thank you. Setonahill |
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2 | Jewish believers or not | 1 Pet 1:1 | Beja | 224512 | ||
Setonahill, Yes, I ofcourse was speaking with regards to something that came later in the thread rather than the question of the initial post. Sometimes threads do go astray from the original question. I hope you won't hold it against us. I do think your original question was a fair study question to ask. I skimmed over 1 Peter and I can't say that I can point to a verse which difinitively answers your question. I do think due to the quoting of Hosea 1, it removes the possibility of the corresponding verse in 1 Peter from being difinitive proof. All I can offer is my opinion with regards to your question. My opinion is simply that Peter is portraying the Church as the reconstitution of the people of God. This new people of God are looking forward to a heavenly inheritance/country and therefore in this current world are, wherever they are, are living as strangers and pilgrims. I think this is significant theme in his letter. Therefore given that I believe that I do not think he is writing to exclusively Jewish Christians but rather are he is using some very jewish/people of God language to describe all Christians both Jew and Gentile. The one place I can argue for this is in early chapter two when he describes this new people/temple being built on the foundation of Jesus Christ. Those who reject Christ have stumbled over the stumbling stone and in verse 8 he says that indeed to this they were appointed. Now those who reject Christ are doomed and this applies to both Jew and Gentile. Further those who receive Christ he says these receive the blessings and then he speaks to them in this manner. 1Pe 2:9 But you are A CHOSEN RACE, A royal PRIESTHOOD, A HOLY NATION, A PEOPLE FOR God's OWN POSSESSION, so that you may proclaim the excellencies of Him who has called you out of darkness into His marvelous light; Now note that this is the exact language of Exodus which God speaks to the people of Israel to institute them as the people of God. Who does he apply it to here in 1 peter? To them who believe in this precious stone Jesus Christ, and we agree that that applies to all whether Jew or Gentile. So this new holy nation of God is composed of all believers of any and all nations and it are these who live now as aliens and strangers in the land. This is how I understand it. In Christ, Beja |
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