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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | What is meant by this passage? | James 4:5 | bleavell | 5346 | ||
You're right. This is a question for the translators. I too compared the KJV, NKJV and NIV, with the NASB (my favorite Big 4). Unfortunately neither the KJV nor the NIV have the process of capitalizing the first letter of a pronoun dealing with deity. Hence, it is impossible to tell whether or not they believe the sentence deals with deity. And of course the NASB translators are attempting to render in more literal terms some pretty atrocious Greek. My pastor has MacArthurs NKJV study bible and I'll check his note. Appreciate your response Hank and I'll go ahead and email Lockman. I had hoped that they were also looking at these and perhaps the translators would respond. | ||||||
2 | What is meant by this passage? | James 4:5 | Hank | 5354 | ||
Bleavell, another brief follow-up on your note. You stated correctly that neither the NIV nor the KJV follow the practice of capitalizing personal pronouns pertaining to the Deity. But you also concluded that, "It is impossible to tell whether or not they believe the sentence deals with Deity." The key word in this passage is "spirit," a noun, which both the NASB and NKJV capitalize, clearly indicating Deity, in this instance, the Holy Spirit. The NIV and KJV do not capitalize "spirit" in this passage, but they do in other passages wherein they believe "spirit" means the Holy Spirit. Examples are Genesis 1:2 and Revelation 1:10. --Hank | ||||||