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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Is His humanity a reasonable explanation | James 1:13 | JCrichton | 131803 | ||
Hi, RWC! I think that the problem lies in that we do not listen to the complete passage; rather we run with that which may have been pointed out by others as proof of contradiction. The very first verse of this passage explains to us that Jesus was allowed to be tempted by Satan: Then Jesus was led by the Spirit out into the desert to be put to the test by the devil. (Matthew 4:1) Satan had no power in himself to challange Jesus; only out of Divine accord is he granted audience with Jesus and allowed to throw things at Him. Another important fact that many seem to dismiss is that once Jesus Commanded Satan, he had no other recourse but to flee from Jesus' sight!: Then Jesus replied, 'Away with you, Satan!... Then the devil left him... (Matthew 4:10-11) God Bless! Angel |
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2 | How do you reconcile them? | James 1:13 | RWC | 131873 | ||
Hi there, I have no problem with the fact that Jesus maintained a position of authority over Satan throughout His whole earthly life through the power of the Holy Spirit and the power of the Word of God, including the period of temptations in the wilderness. The question I was trying to ask is, "How are we to understand this verse that seems to say that God is untemptable when we have other verses that seem to say that God the Son was tempted?" How do you understand it? How do you put this verse together with verses like Heb 4:15 and Mt. 4:1? |
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3 | How do you reconcile them? | James 1:13 | DocTrinsograce | 131876 | ||
You're right, RWC. My exegesis of James 1:12 will not fit these other verses. Nevertheless, every commentary that I check treats these words in this fashion. Thus, Matthew 4:1 states that Jesus was taken into the wilderness to be "enticed by the agency of the devil." In Hebrews it says that Christ was "enticed to the same degree as we experience it." Here is what Jameison says about Matthew 4:1: "The Greek word (peirazein) means simply to try or make proof of; and when ascribed to God in His dealings with men, it means, and can mean no more than this. Thus, Gen_22:1, "It came to pass that God did tempt Abraham," or put his faith to a severe proof. (See Deu_8:2). But for the most part in Scripture the word is used in a bad sense, and means to entice, solicit, or provoke to sin. Hence the name here given to the wicked one--"the tempter" (Mat_4:3). Accordingly "to be tempted" here is to be understood both ways. The Spirit conducted Him into the wilderness simply to have His faith tried; but as the agent in this trial was to be the wicked one, whose whole object would be to seduce Him from His allegiance to God, it was a temptation in the bad sense of the term. The unworthy inference which some would draw from this is energetically repelled by an apostle (Jam_1:13-17)." So I think we are on the same track. It can be defined as either "enticed" or "proven." Apparently, depending on the outcome. Maybe Tim or Kalos can help us out. I apologize if I have only confused matters. |
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