Results 1 - 5 of 5
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Can God really be tempted? | James 1:13 | BradK | 131687 | ||
RWC, I think you're generally on track with your thoughts. In answer to "can God be tempted?", we need to understand Christ's humanity. He had to experience all we would (as a man) in order to be our redeemer. He was- and is - fully God and fully man that He might be our Savior.(1 Tim. 2:5) However, we have to distinguish between being tempted and succumbing to temptation. God could not in any way, shape, or form fall to temptation and still be God, let alone being our Savior. Hebrews 4:15 is an apt reference "For we do not have a high priest who cannot sympathize with our weaknesses, but One who has been tempted in all things as we are, yet without sin." Hebrews 2:17-18 also speaks of His humanity: "Therefore, He had to be made like His brethren in all things, so that He might become a merciful and faithful high priest in things pertaining to God, to make propitiation for the sins of the people. For since He Himself was tempted in that which He has suffered, He is able to come to the aid of those who are tempted." The Commentary Critical says of this "His being “man” was necessary to His being a Mediator, sympathizing with us through experimental knowledge of our nature (Is 50:4; Heb 2:14; 4:15. On the other hand, 1Ti 3:16 asserts that He was also God." I hope this helps. BradK |
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2 | Is His humanity a reasonable explanation | James 1:13 | RWC | 131784 | ||
Yes, I have heard the explanation that Christ was tempted in His humanity but not in His divinity. I find that explanation to be somewhat unsatisfying though. Yes, Jesus was and is fully human and fully divine. Those two natures were somehow brought into a single union; by this I mean that Jesus is and was one individual being. But by saying that Jesus was tempted as a human though not in His divinity, are we not then suggesting that there is a "division" between Jesus the Son of God and Jesus the Son of Man; that they are somehow two different entities? That certainly seems, to me at least, to be where that explanation leads, and that is not good place to go. Does the Commentary Critical to which you refer offer this explanation for Jas. 1.13? I don't know of this commentary so I can't check myself. I agree with you that there is a difference between being tempted and falling to that temptation. But that difference really doesn't come into play in understanding this verse, although it is certainly part of the context of the verse (cf. vv. 14-15). This verse, or at least the part I am asking about, says quite directly (in the modern English translations) that God cannot be tempted, not just that He cannot fall to temptation. The problem comes around though because we know (Mt. 4.1 and He. 4.15) that Jesus the eternal Son of God was tempted. What are we not understanding that makes this seem like a contradiction? |
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3 | Is His humanity a reasonable explanation | James 1:13 | JCrichton | 131803 | ||
Hi, RWC! I think that the problem lies in that we do not listen to the complete passage; rather we run with that which may have been pointed out by others as proof of contradiction. The very first verse of this passage explains to us that Jesus was allowed to be tempted by Satan: Then Jesus was led by the Spirit out into the desert to be put to the test by the devil. (Matthew 4:1) Satan had no power in himself to challange Jesus; only out of Divine accord is he granted audience with Jesus and allowed to throw things at Him. Another important fact that many seem to dismiss is that once Jesus Commanded Satan, he had no other recourse but to flee from Jesus' sight!: Then Jesus replied, 'Away with you, Satan!... Then the devil left him... (Matthew 4:10-11) God Bless! Angel |
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4 | How do you reconcile them? | James 1:13 | RWC | 131873 | ||
Hi there, I have no problem with the fact that Jesus maintained a position of authority over Satan throughout His whole earthly life through the power of the Holy Spirit and the power of the Word of God, including the period of temptations in the wilderness. The question I was trying to ask is, "How are we to understand this verse that seems to say that God is untemptable when we have other verses that seem to say that God the Son was tempted?" How do you understand it? How do you put this verse together with verses like Heb 4:15 and Mt. 4:1? |
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5 | How do you reconcile them? | James 1:13 | DocTrinsograce | 131876 | ||
You're right, RWC. My exegesis of James 1:12 will not fit these other verses. Nevertheless, every commentary that I check treats these words in this fashion. Thus, Matthew 4:1 states that Jesus was taken into the wilderness to be "enticed by the agency of the devil." In Hebrews it says that Christ was "enticed to the same degree as we experience it." Here is what Jameison says about Matthew 4:1: "The Greek word (peirazein) means simply to try or make proof of; and when ascribed to God in His dealings with men, it means, and can mean no more than this. Thus, Gen_22:1, "It came to pass that God did tempt Abraham," or put his faith to a severe proof. (See Deu_8:2). But for the most part in Scripture the word is used in a bad sense, and means to entice, solicit, or provoke to sin. Hence the name here given to the wicked one--"the tempter" (Mat_4:3). Accordingly "to be tempted" here is to be understood both ways. The Spirit conducted Him into the wilderness simply to have His faith tried; but as the agent in this trial was to be the wicked one, whose whole object would be to seduce Him from His allegiance to God, it was a temptation in the bad sense of the term. The unworthy inference which some would draw from this is energetically repelled by an apostle (Jam_1:13-17)." So I think we are on the same track. It can be defined as either "enticed" or "proven." Apparently, depending on the outcome. Maybe Tim or Kalos can help us out. I apologize if I have only confused matters. |
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