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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Joshua or Jesus? | Heb 4:8 | Searcher56 | 9396 | ||
Roverjbh99, Iesous is the name in the Greek; it means Jehovah is salvation, and is the name given our Lord. It is from the Hebrew Y@howshuwa, which was Joshua ben Nun's name. So either could be correct, their names are the same. In the context of the verse, I would say it was the son of Nun. "He would not have spoken of another day after that." Why would God have to speak of another day, if Jesus gave rest. In the context of the chapter, I see it refer to Israel going into the Promised Land, which Joshua led (Jos 1:13) the people to rest (vs 13). I think even the beginning of the book (Heb 1:1-3) shows that this passage does not refer to Jesus. God had to keep on speaking, until he came. Yes, He dis speak after - but before, it all were pointing to His coming. Steve |
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2 | Joshua or Jesus? | Heb 4:8 | Makarios | 9444 | ||
Hello Roverjbh99, This textual question is very interesting! Also notice Acts 7:45, where the same thing (Jesus/Joshua) occurs.. The NASB Exhaustive Concordance states, "Iesous; of Heb. or. H3091; Jesus or Joshua, the name of the Messiah, also three other Isr.:—Jesus (904), Jesus’ (7), Joshua (3)." Strong's Exhaustive Concordance states, "Iesous, 'ee-ay-sooce', Of Hebrew origin [H3091]; Jesus (that is, Jehoshua), the name of our Lord and two (three) other Israelites:—Jesus." Essentially, the same Greek word 'Inoovs' (the closest I can come to that word using this typeset) in these verses (Heb. 4:8, Acts 7:45) that is rendered "Jesus" in the KJV is the exact same Greek word for "Joshua" and "Justus" (Col. 4:11). The Douay-Rheims Translation (NT published in Rheims in 1582) also renders both verses as "Jesus" like the KJV. Vine's Complete Expository Dictionary states, "iesous is a transliteration of the Heb. "Joshua," meaning "Jehovah is salvation," i.e., "is the Savior," "a common name among the Jews".." It is interesting to note that only the Douay-Rheims and the KJV are the only two 'modern' English translations that render this verse that way.. To substitute 'Jesus' in either of these two verses instead of the correct 'Joshua' simply does not make any sense within the context of each of these two verses, since the phrases in both verses that use this Greek word are clearly referring to the Canaanite conquest of the Israelites. Names cause no end of difficulty for the reader of the KJV, since the translators sometimes use the Hebrew form, sometimes a Greek form, and sometimes even a Latin form! The KJV is also well known for the large variety of ways in which it will translate the same word. Those who have attempted to follow the usage of a particular Hebrew or Greek term through the KJV know how difficult such a task can be, and the inconsistency of the KJV in translating terms only makes the job that much harder. Blessings, Nolan |
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3 | Joshua or Jesus? | Heb 4:8 | Searcher56 | 9538 | ||
Nolan, Thank you for the additional information. Steve | ||||||
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Questions and/or Subjects for Heb 4:8 | Author | ||
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roverjbh99 | ||
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Searcher56 | ||
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Makarios | ||
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Searcher56 | ||
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eaglei35 |