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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Why does the NASB use "adequate" | 2 Tim 3:17 | Booketeer | 2265 | ||
Why did the Translators of the NASB choose the word "adequate" instead of "complete" in 2Timothy 3:17? |
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2 | Why does the NASB use "adequate" | 2 Tim 3:17 | Hank | 116254 | ||
The primary meaning of "adequate" is being sufficent to satisfy a requirement or meet a need. A secondary meaning is being barely satisfactory or sufficient, but when it is used in this sense, it almost always is preceded by a limiting adverb such as 'only' or 'scarcely.' This second sense of adequate is not supported by the context: "adequate, equipped for every good work" suggests a good deal more than being barely satisfactory or sufficient. I believe 'adequate' in this context is actually more precise, and hence possibly more accurate, than 'complete.' And who would argue that it conveys a far clearer message to modern ears than the KJV 'perfect'? The Greek word is artios, which can be translated proficent or capable. In this context, the idea is that Scripture furnishes the man of God with everything he needs in order to do what God wants him to do. He does not go out into the vineyard of the Lord poorly or inadequately equipped for the job. --Hank | ||||||
3 | Why does the NASB use "adequate" | 2 Tim 3:17 | flinkywood | 116255 | ||
Hank, I was wondering about that one too. Nicely justified. Colin |
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4 | Why does the NASB use "adequate" | 2 Tim 3:17 | Hank | 116256 | ||
Colin, thanks, and why did you tarry a full five minutes before responding? :-) --Hank | ||||||
5 | Why does the NASB use "adequate" | 2 Tim 3:17 | flinkywood | 116259 | ||
Hank, I wasn't aware. Good thing I did. "The mother of Sisera looked out at a window, and cried through the lattice, Why is his chariot so long in coming? why tarry the wheels of his chariots?" (Jdg 5:28) Colin |
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