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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | in verse 26 whose will God's or Satan's | 2 Tim 2:26 | bjandy | 182986 | ||
in verse 26 whose will God's or Satan's | ||||||
2 | in verse 26 whose will God's or Satan's | 2 Tim 2:26 | Morant61 | 183010 | ||
Greetings Bjandy! I would concur with Mark's response. Here is a part of an older post of mine that explains why I agree with Mark. ********** I wish there was a way that we could actually type in Greek on this forum. It would make looking at questions like this easier. Either of the pronouns could refer to either Satan or God. Contextually, I think it is best to take them both as references to Satan. Here is why: The text of 2 Tim. 2:26 is referring to those who oppose Timothy in verse 25. The verse literally reads: "and they may regain their senses from the snare of the devil, having been taken captive by him unto that one's will." (My literal translation) As I mentioned earlier, there are three ways of reading this last clause. 1) All of it refers to Satan. 2) All of it refers to God. 3) The first part refers to Satan, and the second pronoun refers to God. Option 3 doesn't make a lot of sense. The only point in it's favor is the fact that two very different pronouns are used. However, this may simply be for the sake of variety and emphasis. Option 2 would make sense, except that those who opposed Timothy haven't yet repented. Therefore, could it really be said of them that "they have been take captive" by God to do His will? Option 1 seems (in my opinion) to make the best sense. It is Paul's hope that those who oppose Timothy make come to repentance and come to their senses, for they have been taken captive to do Satan's will. Thus, option 1 makes sense: a) Contextually. b) and Grammatically, since the nearest antecedent is the Devil. I would not be dogmatic about this point, but I think option 1 fits best! ***************** For added support, here is what the Net Bible Commentary says about this question. **************** "for that one's will," referring to the devil, but with a different pronoun than in the previous phrase "by him." Some have construed "for his will" with the earlier verb and referred the pronoun to God: "come to their senses and escape the devil's trap (though they have been captured by him) in order to do His will." In Classical Greek the shift in pronouns would suggest this, but in Koine Greek this change is not significant. The more natural sense is a reference to the devil's will. ********** I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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Questions and/or Subjects for 2 Tim 2:26 | Author | ||
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aquila | ||
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bjandy | ||
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mark d seyler | ||
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DocTrinsograce | ||
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Morant61 |