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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | How many layers of meaning in the Bible? | 2 Tim 2:1 | HeIsRisen | 235527 | ||
The full verse: "For it is written in the law of Moses 'Do not muzzle the ox while it is treading out the grain'. Is it about oxen that God is concerned? Surely he says this for us doesn't he? Yes, this was written for us, because when the plowman ploughs and the thresher threshes, they ought to do so in hopes of sharing in the harvest. If we have sown spiritual seed, is it too much if we reap a material harvest from you?" (1 Cor 9:9-10) Paul says very clearly the verses in the law of Moses concerning cattle is not the meaning God intended, rather it was written for the benefit of the saints who would read the passage much later and make application to order in the church. A literal meaning of the passage would not convey the interpretation nor the application. So we see an example of how there is more than one level of meaning in Scripture. To the Jews there was a law and they were duty bound to obey it. To the Christian there is a deeper spiritual application for us. Two audiences, two meanings, both intended by the author. |
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2 | How many layers of meaning in the Bible? | 2 Tim 2:1 | BradK | 235528 | ||
Helsrisen, It might help to know what your theological presuppositions are? What do you believe regarding scripture itself? Is it the inspired, infallible Word of God? However, scripture only has one meaning- the one intended by the original(inspired) author, to the audience he was writting, within the context. The 1 Cor. 9:9-10 passage you're referring to needs to be interpreted within the context in which it was written. In other words, you can't pull a verse out, isolate it, and say, "this is what it means". Given the above, Possibly the question you're asking is Can a Text have more than one meaning? Yes, it can have more than one meaning if the human author conciously intended multiple meanings of his work. In this case, did Paul intend 2 meanings? Without further clarification I'd be very careful in saying "Two audiences, two meanings, both intended by the author." How do you know this? You're making an assumption without providing much support! Again, does the reader detrmine the meaning, the text determine the meaning or does the Author determine the meaning? Speaking the Truth in Love, BradK |
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3 | How many layers of meaning in the Bible? | 2 Tim 2:1 | HeIsRisen | 235532 | ||
It is hard for me to understand that you can say "scripture only has one meaning". The apostle Paul clearly states that a verse of the law written to the Jews as a literal requirement for them ALSO was written to us, Christians of a later era. The same verse has two intended audiences, and two separate meanings, which Paul clearly identifies regarding how it is to be interpreted for us who believe in Jesus. This could not have been an accident, since the author (the Holy Spirit) knew beforehand both audiences, and both interpretations. If scripture only has one meaning as you say, then Paul is a liar. Regarding scripture, my belief concerning the matter is of no consequence, however scripture itself informs us "all scripture is God breathed" hence authorship is established. |
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4 | How many layers of meaning in the Bible? | 2 Tim 2:1 | BradK | 235537 | ||
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