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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | 'women' or 'their wives', how did NASB | 1 Tim 3:11 | HatchB | 232018 | ||
How did the translators of the NASB come to choose the word 'women' instead of 'their wives' as in the NIV or KJV? | ||||||
2 | 'women' or 'their wives', how did NASB | 1 Tim 3:11 | Beja | 232020 | ||
HatchB, The reason is that the same word in greek is translated both woman and wife, or women and wives. Only context determines whether it is talking about a married woman or simply a woman in general. In that particular passage the debate is over if it is referring to female deacons, or the wives of deacons. If I was to venture to guess the thoughts behind the NASB translation, I think their intentions were likely not to make the exegetical decision that this refers to women deacon, but rather to let the word "Women" show the ambiguity there in the greek. That is purely my speculation however. In Christ, Beja |
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Questions and/or Subjects for 1 Tim 3:11 | Author | ||
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JDHallKY | ||
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Charles E. Whisnant | ||
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dbondz | ||
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dbondz | ||
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jim norman | ||
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jsjt98@gmail.com | ||
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HatchB | ||
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Beja |