Results 1 - 5 of 5
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | 2 Tim 3:16 | Num 31:17 | DocTrinsograce | 175224 | ||
Dear Parable, None of my explanations for God's unwillingness to answer "why" questions contradicts 2 Timothy 3:16 or any other Scripture. Indeed, it is consistent with what we know about special and general revelation. Note, for example, one of the wisdom books: Job. It records a God-initiated set of events in the life of Job. The question it poses is "Why do the righteous suffer?" In 42 chapters, no answer is given. You wrote, "If the purpose of this scripture is not to be explained in the terms I have put the question, and that is certainly possible, then what purpose does Numbers 31:17-18 serve, among those listed by Paul to Timothy?" Now you are asking a completely different question. (By the way, every one of those commentators answered your original question. That was why I provided them for you.) 2 Timothy 3:16-17 reads, "All Scripture is breathed out by God and profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, and for training in righteousness, that the man of God may be competent, equipped for every good work." (ESV) The book of Numbers is a historic book. It is profitable for our instruction (teaching) about God's dealings with the Israelites in the past. It is reproof of our plans and intentions when they contravene the will of God. It is correction to our culturally based presuppositions associated with the explicit command of God. It stirs humility and reverential fear in our hearts, in the face of a God who both gives and takes life, thereby training us in righteousness. I could go on and on and on. The net effect is that we are better equipped for every good work. We are pretty much a compendium of laymen. As I suggested in a previous post, if you are not satisfied with the answers you receive, you should research the questions in more detail by leveraging resources elsewhere. We may have, quite simply, exhausted our resources and abilities. When you do find an answer with which you are satisfied, perhaps you can post it here for our consideration and edification. In Him, Doc |
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2 | 2 Tim 3:16 | Num 31:17 | Parable | 175231 | ||
God's unwillingness to answer is not the point. My question relates to what the Word says about what was done in His name. While your commentaries are insightful, they are not scripture, which is what I am trying to understand. And, you suggest all the commentaries you provided answered my orginal question. I disagree. Here are the relevant excerpts, with my observations (in parens): Matthew Henry -- "The female children were spared, who, being brought up among the Israelites, would not tempt them to idolatry." (this explains why they were spared, but not why the boys were killed) Your paraphrase -- "John Gill comments on the women killed ...." (this explains why the women were killed, but does not address why the virgin females were spared nor why the boys were killed) Robert Jamieson, et al, -- "No order had been given for the slaughter of the women, and in ancient war they were commonly reserved for slaves." (this explains why the officer brought them back from war) "...the Midianitish women had forfeited all claims to mild or merciful treatment; and the sacred character, the avowed object of the war (Numbers 31:2-3), made their slaughter necessary without any special order." (this explains why the women were killed) "But why 'kill every male among the little ones'? It was designed to be a war of extermination, such as God Himself had ordered against the people of Canaan, whom the Midianites equalled in the enormity of their wickedness." (if a war of extermination, then killing the boys is consistent with that, but sparing the virgin females is not) Adam Clarke -- "The little ones were safely lodged; they were taken to heaven and saved from the evil to come." (so, killing the boys was essentially an act of mercy. if so, then this mercy was denied to the virgin females. why?) John Wesley -- "Every woman - Partly for punishment, because the guilt was general, and though some of them only did prostitute themselves to the Israelites, yet the rest made themselves accessary by their consent or approbation; and partly, for prevention of the like mischief from such an adulterous generation." (this explains the killing of the women, and perhaps the boys, but does not speak to why the virgin females were spared) Finally, while I appreciate your encouragement to explore this topic elsewhere and report my findings, to be honest it feels more like I am being dismissed, now that you have answered my question yet I have somehow not understood your meaning. My question remains best stated in two parts: 1. What purpose is served by eliminating the boys that would not have also been served by eliminating the virgin females? 2. Conversely, what purpose is served by sparing the virgin females that would not have also been served by sparing the boys? If anyone has any scriptural references that speak to the distinction between the boys and virgin females that I have articulated, please advise. Otherwise, it seems God's purpose with this distiction, if it is indeed real, is not to be revealed in His Word. |
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3 | 2 Tim 3:16 | Num 31:17 | DocTrinsograce | 175238 | ||
"...if it is indeed real..." What alternative are you suggesting? | ||||||
4 | 2 Tim 3:16 | Num 31:17 | Parable | 175241 | ||
In science and law, it is recognized that the evidence we consider often is shaped by the questions we ask. I am mindful that hermaneutics is not exempt from this. It is possible that the distinction I see is more about how I think and less about how God thinks. | ||||||
5 | 2 Tim 3:16 | Num 31:17 | DocTrinsograce | 175242 | ||
I see... Thank you for the clarification. | ||||||