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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | What does men in Eph. 4:8 mean? | Eph 4:8 | benjamite | 36895 | ||
Let me answer your question with another question. What do you understand 1 Corinthians 14:26-40 to say? This is how the Bible defines order. "God is not a God of confusion but of peace" (1 Cor 14:33a, NASB) In summary: 1. If, and only if, an interpreter is present, are two or three "tongues" spoken, at most. Or else no tongues are spoken. (27-28) 2. Two or three prophets (one at a time).(29-32) 3. The women are to keep silent in the churches, and are to subject themselves and ask at home; for it is improper for a woman to speak in church. (34-35) |
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2 | What does men in Eph. 4:8 mean? | Eph 4:8 | tuli | 36999 | ||
What has it got to do with Eph.4:8? |
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3 | What does men in Eph. 4:8 mean? | Eph 4:8 | benjamite | 37031 | ||
It has everything to do with Eph 4:8. We are talking about the usage of spiritual gifts, aren't we? Why would 1 Corinthians 14:26-40 not apply? Proper usage of the gifts He gave to men will be in line with 1 Corinthians 14:26-40. Forgive me, but there are times where I feel like I'm reinventing the wheel at each step. This seems like something that would be better worked out one-on-one. I'm not sure of your background, but if you have a pastor or elder whom you trust and whose opinion you respect, why not talk to them about this? |
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