Results 1 - 6 of 6
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | What does men in Eph. 4:8 mean? | Eph 4:8 | tuli | 36875 | ||
Thanks for the referrence on Priscilla, I know someone who really needs to hear that! Thanks a lot brother. You do make it more clear with that example. I may not necessarily agree with you on Anna as being disqualified because the Church had not formed. Israel is called the church in the wilderness! Acts 7:38 God's administration has always been through men even in the old testament yet you have the prophetesses. God uses them to speak to His people. They were consulted by the men! Did the women lose this priviledge in the NT? I doubt it! |
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2 | What does men in Eph. 4:8 mean? | Eph 4:8 | benjamite | 36883 | ||
It is true that the word "ekklesia" (usually translated "church") is used of Israel. It is used of secular gatherings, as well, (cf. Acts 19:32-41). In Acts 7:38, is the reference to a congregation of believers, unbelievers, or a mixed gathering? Anna was, however before the outpouring of the Holy Spirit. We don't, like David, need to say, "Do not take your Holy Spirit from me." (Ps. 51:11) If we are saved, we have the Spirit (Romans 8:9). If we don't, we are not saved (Jude 19). Notice also that Anna was before the time when Jesus said, "I will build my church" (Matthew 16:18). In Matthew 16:18, by Jesus' own statement, we know that the church was not in existence, yet. By the time of Acts 2:47 (NKJV or 5:11 in the NASB) it had begun. If you don't mind my saying so, saying "God uses them to speak to His people" might be true, but it is not quite complete. God also uses donkeys and unbelievers (Numbers 22, John 11:49-53). Did they lose this privilege? In the church, there is (or should be) order.(1 Cor 14:40) |
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3 | What does men in Eph. 4:8 mean? | Eph 4:8 | tuli | 36892 | ||
What do you mean by order? | ||||||
4 | What does men in Eph. 4:8 mean? | Eph 4:8 | benjamite | 36895 | ||
Let me answer your question with another question. What do you understand 1 Corinthians 14:26-40 to say? This is how the Bible defines order. "God is not a God of confusion but of peace" (1 Cor 14:33a, NASB) In summary: 1. If, and only if, an interpreter is present, are two or three "tongues" spoken, at most. Or else no tongues are spoken. (27-28) 2. Two or three prophets (one at a time).(29-32) 3. The women are to keep silent in the churches, and are to subject themselves and ask at home; for it is improper for a woman to speak in church. (34-35) |
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5 | What does men in Eph. 4:8 mean? | Eph 4:8 | tuli | 36999 | ||
What has it got to do with Eph.4:8? |
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6 | What does men in Eph. 4:8 mean? | Eph 4:8 | benjamite | 37031 | ||
It has everything to do with Eph 4:8. We are talking about the usage of spiritual gifts, aren't we? Why would 1 Corinthians 14:26-40 not apply? Proper usage of the gifts He gave to men will be in line with 1 Corinthians 14:26-40. Forgive me, but there are times where I feel like I'm reinventing the wheel at each step. This seems like something that would be better worked out one-on-one. I'm not sure of your background, but if you have a pastor or elder whom you trust and whose opinion you respect, why not talk to them about this? |
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