Results 1 - 9 of 9
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | What does men in Eph. 4:8 mean? | Eph 4:8 | benjamite | 36676 | ||
Meaningless? I neither said nor implied that these verses are meaningless. I have answered your question about the contribution of the women. If you'll remember, I said,"Can women teach other women? Yes. From Titus 2:3-5, 'Older women likewise are to be reverent in their behavior, not malicious gossips nor enslaved to much wine, teaching what is good, so that they may encourage the young women to love their husbands, to love their children, to be sensible, pure, workers at home, kind, being subject to their own husbands, so that the word of God will not be dishonored.'" I'm going to answer your other post here, so we can tie everything together. When we look at meetings of the Church in the New Testament, we see that, "They were continually devoting themselves to the apostles' teaching and to fellowship, to the breaking of bread and to prayer." (Acts 2:42 NASB) The meetings of the church consist of at least one of these four things. You seem to imply, here, that everybody contributes (or should contribute) verbally all the time. That is clearly not Biblical. If you haven't read chapters 11-14 of 1 Corinthians, at least read 14:26-40. For the sake of brevity, here, I close with verse 40, "But all things must be done properly and in an orderly manner." |
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2 | What does men in Eph. 4:8 mean? | Eph 4:8 | tuli | 36736 | ||
Benjamite, I recal Timothy was taught teh scriptures by his grandma and mom. don't get me wrong, I know that womem are not suppose to teach in the house of God, the "theater" for heaven and earth. My question is outside that theater, can they teach? The building up of the saints is not only in the house of God. And how about the prophetess Anna? |
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3 | What does men in Eph. 4:8 mean? | Eph 4:8 | benjamite | 36790 | ||
Why don't we consider Priscilla (sometimes called "Prisca")? Acts 18:26 "and he (Apollos) began to speak out boldly in the synagogue. But when Priscilla and Aquila heard him, they took him aside and explained to him the way of God more accurately." We see Priscilla involved with "explaining the way of God". This was a private matter. Does this help? If you want to know more about Priscilla, do a search for "Prisc" (it will pick up both spellings that way). I hope you don't mind my giving a different example. There are some who would put Eunice and Lois (the mother and grandmother of Timothy) into the category of "Children, obey your parents", "Honor your father and mother", or "Train up a child". With Anna, she was before the outpouring of the Holy Spirit at Pentecost, and because of that, some would see her as outside the church (Like Esther, Ruth, and Deborah, the judge.) In Him, Benjamite |
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4 | What does men in Eph. 4:8 mean? | Eph 4:8 | tuli | 36875 | ||
Thanks for the referrence on Priscilla, I know someone who really needs to hear that! Thanks a lot brother. You do make it more clear with that example. I may not necessarily agree with you on Anna as being disqualified because the Church had not formed. Israel is called the church in the wilderness! Acts 7:38 God's administration has always been through men even in the old testament yet you have the prophetesses. God uses them to speak to His people. They were consulted by the men! Did the women lose this priviledge in the NT? I doubt it! |
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5 | What does men in Eph. 4:8 mean? | Eph 4:8 | benjamite | 36883 | ||
It is true that the word "ekklesia" (usually translated "church") is used of Israel. It is used of secular gatherings, as well, (cf. Acts 19:32-41). In Acts 7:38, is the reference to a congregation of believers, unbelievers, or a mixed gathering? Anna was, however before the outpouring of the Holy Spirit. We don't, like David, need to say, "Do not take your Holy Spirit from me." (Ps. 51:11) If we are saved, we have the Spirit (Romans 8:9). If we don't, we are not saved (Jude 19). Notice also that Anna was before the time when Jesus said, "I will build my church" (Matthew 16:18). In Matthew 16:18, by Jesus' own statement, we know that the church was not in existence, yet. By the time of Acts 2:47 (NKJV or 5:11 in the NASB) it had begun. If you don't mind my saying so, saying "God uses them to speak to His people" might be true, but it is not quite complete. God also uses donkeys and unbelievers (Numbers 22, John 11:49-53). Did they lose this privilege? In the church, there is (or should be) order.(1 Cor 14:40) |
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6 | What does men in Eph. 4:8 mean? | Eph 4:8 | tuli | 36892 | ||
What do you mean by order? | ||||||
7 | What does men in Eph. 4:8 mean? | Eph 4:8 | benjamite | 36895 | ||
Let me answer your question with another question. What do you understand 1 Corinthians 14:26-40 to say? This is how the Bible defines order. "God is not a God of confusion but of peace" (1 Cor 14:33a, NASB) In summary: 1. If, and only if, an interpreter is present, are two or three "tongues" spoken, at most. Or else no tongues are spoken. (27-28) 2. Two or three prophets (one at a time).(29-32) 3. The women are to keep silent in the churches, and are to subject themselves and ask at home; for it is improper for a woman to speak in church. (34-35) |
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8 | What does men in Eph. 4:8 mean? | Eph 4:8 | tuli | 36999 | ||
What has it got to do with Eph.4:8? |
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9 | What does men in Eph. 4:8 mean? | Eph 4:8 | benjamite | 37031 | ||
It has everything to do with Eph 4:8. We are talking about the usage of spiritual gifts, aren't we? Why would 1 Corinthians 14:26-40 not apply? Proper usage of the gifts He gave to men will be in line with 1 Corinthians 14:26-40. Forgive me, but there are times where I feel like I'm reinventing the wheel at each step. This seems like something that would be better worked out one-on-one. I'm not sure of your background, but if you have a pastor or elder whom you trust and whose opinion you respect, why not talk to them about this? |
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