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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Why does Paul say "not I, but the Lord"? | 1 Cor 7:10 | Searcher56 | 12695 | ||
Why does Paul seem to distinguish so clearly between what the Lord commands and what he himself has to say? If Paul intends to make a distinction between levels of authority, what are the implications of that distinction for the authority Christ's saying on earth, relative to Paul's letters? Do we need to compare all of Paul's writings in light of Jesus' teaching in the Gospels and elevate those parts of his letters which are clear by Jesus taught them above those which are clearly the product of Paul's thought? |
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2 | Why does Paul say "not I, but the Lord"? | 1 Cor 7:10 | Louder | 12730 | ||
I seem to me that Paul indicates an opinion based on 'concession', and also anything else stated by himself. What he says regarding the subject matter is in no way not in accordance with what Jesus stated. Matthew 19:11-12 11 But He said to them, “Not all men can accept this statement, but only those to whom it has been given. 12 “For there are eunuchs who were born that way from their mother’s womb; and there are eunuchs who were made eunuchs by men; and there are also eunuchs who made themselves eunuchs for the sake of the kingdom of heaven. He who is able to accept this, let him accept it.” The New American Standard Bible, 1995 Update, (La Habra, California: The Lockman Foundation) 1996. |
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3 | Why does Paul say "not I, but the Lord"? | 1 Cor 7:10 | kalos | 12742 | ||
The contrast is not between inspired teaching and uninspired teaching. 1Corinthians 7:1-12. "(7:12) In vv. 1-12 the contrast is not between inspired teaching and uninspired teaching, as some have supposed. In vv. 10-11 Paul is repeating in substance something already taught by the Lord; but in v. 12 he is dealing with a situation not covered by our Lord's teaching. Instead of disclaiming inspiration for what he writes in v. 12, the apostle is actually claiming for his own words here the same authority as for the words of Christ Himself" (note at 1 Cor 7:12, New Scofield Reference Bible, Oxford, 1967). Please note: in 1 Cor 7:12 "*I...say.* Not a denial of inspiration or an indication that Paul is giving human opinion, but simply a way of saying that Jesus had not spoken on this and God had not previously given revelation on the matter, as Paul was then writing" (p. 1738, MacArthur Study Bible, Word, 1997) Why in the world would Paul write something in the NT that is not in accord with what Jesus said? This is a very strange notion indeed. "All scripture is inspired..." (Nolan and Tim, help me out here please. ) |
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4 | Why does Paul say "not I, but the Lord"? | 1 Cor 7:10 | Makarios | 12747 | ||
This is very true, JVH0212! We can rest assured that what Paul is saying here in Chapter 7 is also inspired (as the entire Bible is) since verse 7:40 states, "..I too have the Spirit of God." Everything that Paul states is in accordance with what Jesus said. Nelson's Study Bible simply puts it this way, "I, not the Lord, say: Paul now presents a problem that was not addressed by Jesus. Sometimes a husband or wife would become a Christian, but the spouse would not. Paul exhorts the believer to remain married if the unbelieving spouse does not want to divorce." Ryrie's Study Bible states, "7:10-11 According to both Paul’s and Christ’s teachings (Mark 10:1-12), believers should not divorce. If separation does occur, the believer must either remain unmarried permanently or be reconciled permanently. 7:12-13 These verses deal with marriages in which one partner becomes a believer after the marriage. I say, not the Lord. I.e., Christ did not give any teaching concerning spiritually mixed marriages, but Paul does, and his teaching is authoritative. Such spiritually mixed marriages are to stay together if at all possible." In each case, (verse 10 and 12), we can rest assured that Paul's teaching and Jesus' teachings in the Bible would coincide with each other, since Paul is speaking with the Holy Spirit (1 Cor. 7:40; 2 Peter 3:16). --Nolan |
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