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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | How do you interpret this verse? | 1 Cor 14:2 | Ivory313 | 53799 | ||
A pastor said "tongue speaks not to men but to God" should read "tongue speaks not men but to god" in Greek because a article "the" is missing before "god" in this verse. He interpret this refer to a pagan's god. So speak in tongue not to men but to a pagan god. What translation version does he refer to? Is it NIV or KJV. Where can I find a better translation for this verse. | ||||||
2 | How do you interpret this verse? | 1 Cor 14:2 | The Berean | 53802 | ||
The translation I would look to is the NASB. However you must stick with the concordance or use a hebrew-greek linear bible (i think that it what it is called) It gives you the translation from greek word for word...so the sentence flow will not be perfect when spoken...that should help you out. The Berean. |
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