Results 1 - 3 of 3
|
|
|||||
Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Why is 'offering' in italics | Rom 8:3 | BradHeath | 133879 | ||
I beleive 2 Corinthians 5:21 rendering of the second use of the word 'sin' could or should be 'sin-offering'. Romans 8:3 bears witness to this rendering, but I am concerned about the added emphsis of 'offering' in italics. Is there grammatical or other justifiable reasons the word was added or is this just man's reasoning that it makes more sense or that we have an agenda? I definitely believe it should be there but I am a lay person without the background to justify the rendering. | ||||||
2 | Why is 'offering' in italics | Rom 8:3 | Searcher56 | 133884 | ||
The original in 2 Corinthians 5:21 says ... to;n mh; gnovnta aJmartivan uJpe;r hJmw'n aJmartivan ejpoivhsen ... aJmartivan is the word for sin. Offering is not there. tho could make sense |
||||||
3 | Why is 'offering' in italics | Rom 8:3 | BradHeath | 133887 | ||
Do you beleive Jesus became sine on the tree (cross)? Whatever you typed in the Answer for 2 Cor 5:24/Romans 8:3 came out indistinguishable. I assune you do not use a NASB translation. | ||||||