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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | sinful flesh or flesh? | Rom 8:3 | kalos | 116685 | ||
"flesh" 'Scripture uses this term in a non-moral sense to describe man's physical being (John 1:14), and in a morally evil sense to describe man's unredeemed humanness, i.e., that remnant of the old man which will remain with each believer until each receives his or her glorified body (Romans 8:23)' (MacArthur Study Bible). There is no inconsistency in the fact that Scripture itself uses the term "flesh" in more than one sense. |
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2 | sinful flesh or flesh? | Rom 8:3 | bjh | 116780 | ||
I agree, sarx, the Greek word translated "flesh", can have a wide range of meanings. For my part, I view "man" as being a little broader than just "flesh" - which is where I might take some issue with the NIV. Deeper thoughts which might loose some people... We still sin (Romans 7 and 1 John 1). I think I would be happier if the NIV read, "He condemned sin in man", because Christ did not become "sinful man" but (simply) "man". Unless I'm misreading it, sin was condemned at the cross - in Christ's sinless, yet die-able, flesh (but, admittedly, He became sin on our behalf). |
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