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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | why no law between Adam and Moses? | Rom 5:13 | buffy1 | 182588 | ||
why was there no law during that time, from Adam to Moses? Why did God allow people to live during that period unaccountable to their sins? Why did God wait so long to put a law? Where did those people go at death? I am assuming to hell, these are the ones Jesus went to release after He raised from death? | ||||||
2 | why no law between Adam and Moses? | Rom 5:13 | BradK | 182598 | ||
Dear buffy, My colleague, Doc has addressed you already. You've asked several questions in your single post. Might I deal with only a couple of those. What would lead you to conclude that "God allow(ed) people to live during that period unaccountable to their sins?" 1. There were consequences for sin from the fall of Adam and Eve in Gen. 3:6-7. Immediately following, God pronounces judgment on man in 3:14ff; 2. In Gen. 6:1-4 we are told of the ungodly multiplying. Certainly the Lord noted this when it is recorded in vs. 5, "Then the LORD saw that the wickedness of man was great on the earth, and that every intent of the thoughts of his heart was only evil continually." Notice the judgment of God in 6:6-7. Yet, God made a covenant with Noah in 6:17-22. The Godly were saved! It might be better to focus on 1 issue at a time for claritys' sake:-) Speaking the Truth in Love, BradK 3. |
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