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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | why no law between Adam and Moses? | Rom 5:13 | buffy1 | 182588 | ||
why was there no law during that time, from Adam to Moses? Why did God allow people to live during that period unaccountable to their sins? Why did God wait so long to put a law? Where did those people go at death? I am assuming to hell, these are the ones Jesus went to release after He raised from death? | ||||||
2 | why no law between Adam and Moses? | Rom 5:13 | DocTrinsograce | 182593 | ||
Dear Buffy, Welcome to the forum! You have a number of strange ideas there, young lady! :-) Why would you think there was no law in the prediluvian world? Adam was given commands by God (Genesis 2:16-17), and further mandates are implied, if not explicitly stated. Cain and Abel were clearly responding to specific commands of the Lord (Genesis 4:1-17). Lamech's behavior was quite clearly condemned (Genesis 4:23-24). Enoch was commended and rewarded for living closely to God (Genesis 5:24). Grace was granted to Noah (Genesis 6:8). Clearly God had a standard that was known to man and violated by them (Genesis 6:5). So much could be written about this, time and space prohibit! Salvation has always been and always will be through the shed blood of the Lord Jesus Christ (Acts 4:12). He was born, lived, and died at a specific point in history. Certainly many things were not as clear to those who lived before (1 Peter 1:10-12). Nevertheless, those who belonged to God were all saved by faith (Hebrews 11). I would commend you to a more detailed study of the Word (2Timothy 4:1-4), in order to learn and appropriate a more sound doctrine. In Him, Doc |
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