Results 1 - 2 of 2
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Who is revealing God's wrath? | Rom 1:18 | wick08 | 225574 | ||
I feel as if I didn't portray my question very well. What I'm trying to get at is there is a difference between God's wrath being revealed (meaning sin gave the punishment to the Romans) and God revealing his wrath (meaning God gave the punishment to the Romans). However, translations say both. I feel like this important because it helps to understand God's character better. If God revealed His wrath, I think it shows that He punishes man when they are habitually caught in sin. If the verse is read as God's wrath is revealed, then this could mean that when one is caught in habitual sin, it naturally disconnects them from God, and God is only revealing His wrath, not punishing man. Sin is punishing man on its own, without God. So I think I can sum up the question by asking, is sin the cause of the Romans depravity, or is sin God's cause for depraving the Romans? | ||||||
2 | Who is revealing God's wrath? | Rom 1:18 | BradK | 225582 | ||
Hello wick08, Let me try to elaborate and provide more specific exegesis: (I'll quote from notes and Commentary of Dr. Campbell) "The subject of verse 18 is the wrath of God. The Greek word for wrath is "orge' and may be translated, anger, indignation, or passion. the genetive case simply indicates that this wrath belongs to God, i.e. God reveals His own wrath against man's sinful characteristics." The word translated "reveals" comes from two Greek words, "apo" and "kalupto" which can translate as unveiled, manifested, and appears. It is in the present tense suggesting that with the onset of man's sin the wrath of God begins and continues against it. (John 3:36). Regarding the place from which the wrath of God is revealed "from heaven" would be the normal place of God's abode (Eph. 6:9, 1 Pet. 3:22). Since the wrath Paul speaks of is a direct expression of God's anger, it naturally follows that it comes forth from where God is- from heaven! The wrath of God is revealed "against all ungodliness and unrighteousness of men". unrighteousness means sinful man's injustice, wrongdoing, and wickedness. It represents the opposite of that which is right! As the genitive case conveys, it is man's sin, that which he has produced and as such that which belongs to him! 'It's important to note that God's wrath is "against" (epi) , upon the ground of, on the basis of the impiety and injustice practiced by men. This wrath is not directed against men themselves, but against their sin': As Campell further notes, "the language used here could be interpreted to mean that God's wrath is revealed on the ground of or basis of their ungodliness and unrighteousness, i.e., their sin is that which has elicited the wrath of God" So, I say all that to demonstrate that it is the sin of man that is cause depravity. Rom. 1:24 tells us, "For even though they knew God, they did not honor Him as God or give thanks, but they became futile in their speculations, and their foolish heart was darkened." Then, vs. 28, "...And just as they did not see fit to acknowledge God any longer, God gave them over to a depraved mind, to do those things which are not proper," (NASB) [Commentary of Romans 1-8, Dr. Ernest Campbell] I hope this better answers your question. BradK |
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