Results 1 - 8 of 8
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | What must I do to be saved? | Rom 10:9 | alanh | 146513 | ||
What must I do to be saved? | ||||||
2 | What must I do to be saved? | Rom 10:9 | Searcher56 | 146514 | ||
Scripture ... Act 16:30-31, Rom 10:8-15 .... alanh, greetinsg If believe in your heart that God raised Him from the dead, you will be saved ... it includes calling on Him. 1. Heaven is a free gift (Rom 6:23) that we cannot earn or deserve (Eph 2:8-9). 2. We are all sinners and cannot get to heaven ourselves (Rom 3:10-11,23; Jam 2:10). 3. God loves us (1 Jo 4:8, Jer 31:3) and just and must punish sin (Exo 34:7) 4. Jesus is both God and man (Jhn 1:1, 14) and He paid for the penalty for our sin (Rom 5:8) 5. Now we need to accept this gift. Not believing as the demons do (Jam 2:19), but with our heart (Rom 10:9). Searcher |
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3 | What must I do to be saved? | Rom 10:9 | alanh | 146517 | ||
Does not the Bible also teach that baptism, repentance, and confession are necessary? Baptized for remission of sins Acts 2:38 Baptized to wash away one's sins Acts 22:16 Baptism does now save 1 Peter 3:21 Baptism plus belief equals salvation Mark16:16 We are raised from baptism to walk a new life Romans 6:4 We are baptised to put on Christ Galatians 3:26-27 God commands baptism Acts 10:47-48 Baptism authorized by Jesus Christ Matthew 28:18-20 Repentance: God commands all to repent Acts 17:30 All must come to repentance 2 Peter 3:9 Repent or perish Luke 13:3,5 Repentance to be preached to ALL Luke 24:46-47 Christ commands repentance Revelation 2:5,16 |
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4 | What must I do to be saved? | Rom 10:9 | jcsav | 146519 | ||
All the Scripture you listed is summed up in the one on the top of your list (Acts 2:38) That will include Mat 28:28-20. Do this and you will receive the gift of the Holy Ghost. That is, the Lord will baptise you with His Spirit. It seems, you already know what to do. | ||||||
5 | What must I do to be saved? | Rom 10:9 | alanh | 147026 | ||
There are only two cases of Holy Spirit baptism in the Scriptures Acts 2 w/ the apoostles and Acts 10 w/ the 1st Gentiles. Mt 28 where we are commanded to baptize is water baptism. We cannot baptize by the Hioly Spirit only Jesus did that and He did it twice and only twice. Emotionalism is not the same as baptism of the Holy Spirit. | ||||||
6 | What must I do to be saved? | Rom 10:9 | BradK | 147027 | ||
Hi alanh, Why do you see only 2 cases of Holy Spirit baptism? Is not 1 Cor. 12:13 also a prime example? "For by one Spirit we were all baptized into one body, whether Jews or Greeks, whether slaves or free, and we were all made to drink of one Spirit." The Spirit is the agency by which we are united to Christ. Speaking the Truth in Love, BradK |
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7 | What must I do to be saved? | Rom 10:9 | alanh | 147074 | ||
“baptism” is – in those passages that associate the rite with salvation – it is the same type of “baptism” in all the verses. In other words, the “baptism” of Matthew 28:19 is of the same kind as that in Acts 2:38; 22:16; Romans 6:3-4; 1 Corinthians 12:13; Galatians 3:27; Colossians 2:12; 1 Peter 3:21; etc. In view of this, consider the following: The baptism mentioned in Matthew 28:19 had human administrators. Christ commissioned the apostles to go and make disciples, baptizing them into the name of the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit. Inasmuch as an apostle could not baptize “in the Spirit” (only Christ could do that – Mt. 3:11), one is forced to conclude that the baptism of Matthew 28:19 is water baptism, not Spirit baptism. I am unaware of any reputable Bible scholar who contends otherwise. If, then, the other passages that mention baptism (see above) are of the same import, it follows that they likewise refer to water baptism, not Spirit baptism. Both Romans 6:3-4 and Colossians 2:12 make it clear that the baptism of these passages involves both an immersion in “something,” and a “being raised” from the same substance. This makes perfectly good sense if water baptism is in view. On the other hand, if the “Spirit” is the element of the baptism, this would suggest that one is buried in the Spirit, and subsequently “raised from” the Spirit. This would imply further that the new convert would not have the Spirit, and therefore, would not belong to the Lord (Rom. 8:9; Gal. 4:6). This conclusion obviously is wrong – thus demonstrating that the element of the baptism in Romans 6:3-4 and Colossians 2:12 is not the Holy Spirit. By default, it must be water baptism. Water is specifically associated with baptism in 1 Peter 3:21. If the allusion here, then, is to water baptism, and yet 1 Peter 3:21 refers to the same sort of baptism as the other passages cited, then clearly they speak of water baptism as well. The passage that would come closest to teaching a “Spirit” baptism would be 1 Corinthians 12:13, but, the fact is, a careful analysis of related passages reveals that not even this text teaches a baptism in the Spirit. Note the following logic: The baptism of 1 Corinthians 12:13 puts one into the one “body,” which is the same as the “church” (Eph. 1:22-23; Col. 1:18,24). But the church is identified with the kingdom of Christ (Mt. 16:18-19). Thus, the baptism of the text under consideration introduces one into the Lord’s kingdom. However, a related passage demonstrates that it is through the birth of “water” that one enters Christ’s kingdom (Jn. 3:3-5). One is forced to conclude, therefore, that the baptism of 1 Corinthians 12:13 is water baptism. In this connection, one should also carefully study Ephesians 5:26, and note the reference to the “washing of water.” Finally, there is a principle of interpretation that is paramount in sound Bible exegesis. Frequently it is the case that Bible words will form a pattern. That is, a consideration of several passages containing a term will reveal that the word has a commonly understood significance. Such being the case, that normal meaning is to be attached to the term unless an exceptional context suggests that it has taken on a special significance (i.e., a figurative sense). The term “baptize,” and its cognate “baptism,” occur together about 100 times in the New Testament. A consideration of these passages will reveal that the word may, on occasion, take on a figurative application (cf. Mt. 3:11; Lk. 12:50; Acts 1:5). Unless, though, there is clear contextual evidence that a symbolic sense has been employed, the conclusion must be that the common usage (an immersion in water) is in view. In view of this principle, there is no reason to conclude the baptism mentioned in Matthew 28:19; Mark 16:16; Acts 2:38, 22:16; Romans 6:3-4; 1 Corinthians 12:13; Galatians 3:27; Colossians 2:12, and 1 Peter 3:21 is anything other than water baptism – an act of obedience, predicated upon faith and repentance, which secures forgiveness of sins and brings one into union with Jesus Christ. To all of this we add this point. The clear cases of “water” baptism in the book of Acts (chapters 8 and 10) very obviously were not examples of Jewish ritualism. The indisputable fact is that the Mosaic law had been abolished by the cross (Eph. 2:15; Col. 2:14), and no Jewish rite was henceforth tolerated in connection with the salvation process (cf. Acts 15:1; Gal. 5:2-4). |
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8 | What must I do to be saved? | Rom 10:9 | BradK | 147103 | ||
Hi alanh, I appreciate your response, though I'd have to disagree in a number of areas. As noted by Kenneth Wuest, "The word "Spirit" is in the instrumental case in Greek- in 1 Cor. 12:13. Personal agency is expressed occasionally by the instrumental case. The personal agent in this case who does the baptizing is the Holy Spirit. He places or introduces the believing sinner into the Body of which the Lord Jesus is the living Head. The verb is in the past tense, referring to a past action, and is aorist, referring to a once-for-all act. The meaning of to place or introduce into gives us the purpose of the baptism by means of the Sprit, namely, the introduction of a believing sinner into the body of Christ." , Here is the key: As Wuest further states,"It is not the baptism with the Spirit or of the Spirit, in the sense that the Holy Spirit is the element which is applied to us. It is the baptism by the Spirit. This baptism does not bring the Spirit to us in the sense that God places the Spirit upon or in us. Rather, this baptism brings the believer into vital union with Jesus Christ. It is the baptism with the Spirit in the sense that God the Father does the baptizing through His personal agent, the Holy Spirit." The "following logic" of your view of 1 Cor. 12:13 completely befuddles me. You're ignoring the plain meaning of the words, my freind. (I've heard this exact same logic from another poster, previously) How does, "...by one Spirit..." mean anything other than just that? Yours is a stretch to say the least. This is in the aorist tense, passive voice.This basically means it refers to a past(aorist) action(once for all), where the subject(passive) is acted upon by an outside force. The question then becomes, what is the outside force? It is interesting to note that Rom.6:3 ,Gal. 3:27, and Col.2:12 are also aorist tense, passive voice: Romans 6:3 "Or do you not know that all of us who have been baptized into Christ Jesus have been baptized into His death?" Galatians 3:27 "For all of you who were baptized into Christ have clothed yourselves with Christ." Colossians 2:12 "having been buried with Him in baptism, in which you were also raised up with Him through faith in the working of God, who raised Him from the dead." The action of 1 Cor.12:13 is clear. So is Acts 1:5: “ for John baptized with water, but you will be baptized with the Holy Spirit not many days from now.” John baptized with WATER, but you WILL BE BAPTIZED with the Holy Spirit! What could be more evident? The tense in this verse is Future, the voice passive! In both these examples delineating the difference between water baptism and Spirit baptism the passive voice is used. This denotes the action being performed upon the subject by an outside force. In this case, the Holy Spirit. I offer two observations: 1. The context of Galatians 3 seems to support Spirit baptism based upon verses 2 and 3 "This is the only thing I want to find out from you: did you receive the Spirit by the works of the Law, or by hearing with faith?" "Are you so foolish? Having begun by the Spirit, are you now being perfected by the flesh?" To jump to any other conclusion does not appear warranted by the immediate text.The only reference to baptism is 3:27. Though there is obvious disagreement between scholars on this issue, "what saith the scripture?"[Rom. 4:3] We have a similar contextual concern in looking at Col. 2:12 based upon the prior verse,11. "and in Him you were also circumcised with a circumcision made without hands, in the removal of the body of the flesh by the circumcision of Christ;" “Without hands” is an expression always emphasizing the absence of all human instrumentality and the act of God alone.(cf. 2 Cor. 5:1,Heb. 9:11) Interestingly, again we have the aorist tense and passive voice! This “circumcision” is clearly a sovereign act done by God and the flow of thought is continued into vs. 12. Thanks for the dialog. Speaking the Truth in Love, BradK |
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