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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Christ the Goal or the end of the Law? | Rom 10:4 | Magnum | 176324 | ||
Why in this passage is the word "telos"(5056 strongs) translated as end? When I look this up in Strongs if find the following defintion;to set out for a definite point or goal.prop. the point aimed at. So should this not say instead, The goal at which the "Law" aims is Christ, who offers righteousnes to everyone who trusts. It would seem to me that Christ is the goal of the "Law" not the end, just a question. | ||||||
2 | Christ the Goal or the end of the Law? | Rom 10:4 | BradK | 176325 | ||
Hello Magnum, Telos can certainly mean "end". Here are a couple of resources that may shed some light: The Bible Knowledge Commentary says: "The Greek in Romans 10:4 includes the coordinating particle gar, “for” (not trans. in the niv). It introduces a statement that is crucial to Paul’s explanation of Israel’s stumbling—Christ is the end of the Law so that there may be righteousness for everyone who believes. The word translated “end” (telos) stands in the emphatic first position in the Greek sentence. It means that Christ is the designed end (termination) or Purpose-Goal of the Law (cf. Gal. 3:24), the Object to which the Law pointed." A.T. Robertson in his Word Pictures in the NT says, "Romans 10:4 The end of the law [telos nomou]. Christ put a stop to the law as a means of salvation (6:14; 9:31; Eph. 2:15; Col. 2:14) as in Luke 16:16. Christ is the goal or aim of the law (Gal. 3:24). Christ is the fulfilment of the law (Matt. 5:17; Rom. 13:10; I Tim. 1:5). But here (Denney) Paul’s main idea is that Christ ended the law as a method of salvation for “every one that believeth” whether Jew or Gentile. Christ wrote finis on law as a means of grace." BradK |
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