Results 1 - 4 of 4
|
|
|||||
Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | does the bible teach 2 baptisms? | Acts 1:5 | agree3 | 66534 | ||
hello!...i have a heartfelt ?......in john 14:26 it say's the holy spirit will teach "all" things, and bring them to "rememberance",also john 16:13. ?....the messiah in acts 1:5 told the disciples that they will "now" be baptized with spirit.And then they(especially Peter)had to be reminded by the holy spirit(john 14:26)is the baptism in acts 11:15,16..... ?....was the messiah a jew(king jew)who like every other jew had to come to john,because he was under law?Matthew 3:13-15.....so the messiah had to fulfil the law.(luke 24:44)....the law is physical(something that can be seen)like water immersing.John did water baptism right?Now after the messiah lay down his life and arose from the grave there was new law(spirit romans 7:6,and 8:2)right?so is this why he said this in acts 1:5,and paul asked into what baptism were you baptized?I asked this question to myself for over 30 years....why did they ask "into what baptism were you baptized?......why was it so important to find out what baptism if it did not matter?acts 19:1-5......it seems that when paul met these men they were still doing johns' baptism(under the law,acts 1:5)they never heard of any holy spirit!Remember Peter even forgot(acts 11:16)about what the messiah told him and the other disciples.......why? did the disciples go through so much trouble to make sure people knew this in acts 1:5......or was it really the holy spirit doing the teaching through these bodies in the first place!.....john 14:26,and 16:13.......just asking heartfelt questions after reading these verses for a long time........please no bitter replies,.... I am only asking a few questions!......thanks |
||||||
2 | does the bible teach 2 baptisms? | Acts 1:5 | Teacher | 66535 | ||
Agree3, your comment "hello! i have a heartfelt question. In john 14:26 it say's the holy spirit will teach "all" things, and bring them to "rememberance",also john 16:13. the messiah in acts 1:5 told the disciples that they will "now" be baptized with spirit.And then they (especially Peter) had to be reminded by the holy spirit (john 14:26) is the baptism in acts 11:15,16..... " My reply, "Jesus taught his apostles a great deal. So much that no man could remember it well enough to recite to a scribe for a written record. The apostles were "baptized" with the holy spirit, meaning they were blessed by God with the remembrance (jn 14.26) of everything Jesus had taught them." Your comment, "was the messiah a jew(king jew)who like every other jew had to come to john,because he was under law? Matthew 3:13-15.....so the messiah had to fulfil the law (luke 24:44). My reply, "I believe that the reason Jesus was baptized was to set an example. Certainly he didn't have to be. John's baptism was for repentance of sin. Jesus did not sin. The only conclusion left is he did it because he was going to require his followers do it. It was necessary for him to be baptized to 'fulfill all righteousness'. " Your comment, "the law is physical(something that can be seen)like water immersing. John did water baptism right?" My reply, "Yes, John's baptism was for repentance." Your comment, "Now after the messiah lay down his life and arose from the grave there was new law (spirit romans 7:6,and 8:2)right? My reply, "Yes." Your comment, "so is this why he said this in acts 1:5,and paul asked into what baptism were you baptized?I asked this question to myself for over 30 years....why did they ask "into what baptism were you baptized?......why was it so important to find out what baptism if it did not matter?" My reply, "It did matter at that time. If one was only baptized into "John's baptism of repentance" he was lacking something because Christ had died and it was necessary to be baptized into Christ as Acts 19:1-5 demonstrates." John's baptism began while Christ was alive on earth. If someone wanted to obey God they would be baptized into John's baptism. This would safeguard them should they die prior to Jesus (my understanding) and ensure their salvation. Once Christ died, it was necessary to be baptized into Christ for the remission of sin (Acts 2:38). Acts 19 is evidence of this and its importance." Your comment, "it seems that when paul met these men they were still doing johns' baptism(under the law,acts 1:5)they never heard of any holy spirit! These men were not performing John's baptism, they were baptized into John's baptism (Acts 19:3). Remember Peter even forgot(acts 11:16)about what the messiah told him and the other disciples.......why? My reply, "I don't believe Acts 11:16 teaches that Peter forgot, the passage says "Then I remembered". There is a difference." Your comment, "did the disciples go through so much trouble to make sure people knew this in acts 1:5......or was it really the holy spirit doing the teaching through these bodies in the first place!.....john 14:26,and 16:13.......just asking heartfelt questions after reading these verses for a long time........please no bitter replies,.... I am only asking a few questions!......thanks" My reply, "The baptism of the Holy Spirit upon the twelve apostles on Pentecost gave these men the power they needed to one, remember what Jesus had taught them, two, demonstrate that what they said was from God through the performing of miracles (Mk 16.17,18), and three, impart these gifts to others in order to expand the number of "laborers" in the "harvest" (Mt 9:37,38)." These are all excellent questions! |
||||||
3 | again 2 baptisms | Acts 1:5 | agree3 | 66562 | ||
i have a question again on acts 11:16.....it say's peter said, then "I" remembered.If he did not foget,why did he have to remember,or why did the holy spirit remind him?That is my question?...ponder over it!.......and also "before" the messiah death there was no spirit law...right!....only law(what moses and the prophets gave physical jews)in romans 7:6 and 8:2,3.My question again is, was the water baptism for physical jews(galatians 3:24-29),now the being baptized with holy spirit is for gentiles(everyone alive today,is considered a gentile)because we are not physical jews!This is what i have been asking myself over the years....why should a person have to be splashed in water to prove he has been baptized when collosians say's this 2:11-14, it say's without hands,cancelled the bond against with legal demands(the law)and verse 20-23 doctrines.!..what doctrines?so many relgions in the world so many doctrines, how are we to know....I will just leave it up to the spirit to teach and hopefully i will remember! | ||||||
4 | again 2 baptisms | Acts 1:5 | Ray | 66806 | ||
Hi agree3, This is a continuation of an answer to your #66613 post. I have said in the past that I believe that the occurances of being "filled with the Holy Spirit" should be lower case holy spirit. But I encourage you to leave it up to the Holy Spirit to teach you and hopefully you will be filled with the holy spirit and will remember and will be empowered to witness. I believe that Jesus also had the Holy Spirit upon Him and that He baptized also with the holy spirit. He spoke the word of God. Acts 1:4, "And gathering together, He/ commanded them not to leave Jerusalem, but to wait for what the Father had promised, "Which," He said, "you heard of from (Me); for John baptized with water, but you shall be baptized with the *holy *spirit not many days from now." Acts 11:14, "and he [me,Peter] shall speak words to you by which you will be saved, you and all your household." "And as I began to speak, the Holy/Spirit fell upon them, just as He did upon us at the beginning. And I remembered the word of the (Lord), how He used to say, 'John baptized with water, but you shall be baptized with the *holy *spirit.' "If God therefore gave to them the same gift as He gave to us also..." Acts 19:6, "And when Paul had laid his hands upon them, the Holy/Spirit came on them, and they began speaking with tongues and prophesying...about the kingdom of God...so that all who lived in Asia heard the word of the (Lord), both Jews and Greeks." The word of the Lord is a "good "word"" study by the way. :) From the heart, Ray |
||||||