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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Difference between Rhema and Logos. | Acts 10:44 | Ronaldo | 63788 | ||
Difference between "Rhema" and "Logos". I am hearing from many preachers that "Rhema" is when God actually speaks to a person through a Scripture. "Logos" they say is simply the "Word of God". After an inductive study of the occurences of these words I find little to support this teaching. In Acts 10:44 both words are used and logos seems to more effective hearing than rhema. Peter was "rhemaing" and they heard the "logos" Thayers, Strongs etc don't seem to support this popular interpretation. Is there any factual support for it? Is it possibly someone reading something into the Bible to support a Charismatic type of revelation? If not, what is the true distinctive meanings of the words? |
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2 | Difference between Rhema and Logos. | Acts 10:44 | Emmaus | 63792 | ||
Ronaldo, "In Acts 10:44 both words are used and logos seems to more effective hearing than rhema. Peter was "rhemaing" and they heard the "logos"" This is an interesting point. Peter sepaking the word (rhema)and they are hearing the Word (Logos). Logos being the Second Person of the Trinity or Jesus. This would fit very easily in light of the verse which says. "He who hears you (speaking the rhema, prophhetic utterance) hears me (Jesus, the Logos). Luke 10:16. I don't think Rhema and Logos are not used in the verse, but you can see how they would apply in understanding the difference. In the same way the Scripture might be seen as the (Rhema)Word of God, but Christ is the (Logos) Word of God. Emmaus |
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3 | Difference between Rhema and Logos. | Acts 10:44 | Ray | 63844 | ||
Hi Emmaus, I told Ronaldo that my copies of the Interlinear do not show the word "rhema" in Acts 10:44. We do see rhema in 1 Peter 1:25, "But the word of the Lord abides forever." And this is the word which was preached [as good news] to you." It goes on to say that we come to Him as to a living stone. That we are also living stones who believe in Him. And we are obedient to the word [Word?]. 1 Peter 2:8. Whether we are obedient to the word [the Scriptures] or to the Word [God] we are a people who are called to "proclaim the excellencies of Him who has called you out of darkness into His marvelous light; for you once were a people, but now you are the people of (God); you had not received mercy, but now you have received mercy." Acts 26:23, "that the Christ was to suffer, and that by reason of His resurrection from the dead He should be the first to proclaim light both to the Jewish people and to the Gentiles." I would welcome any comments here or in my post numbered 32690. I personally see the need to think of the Scriptures, the Holy Bible, as the "word" of God. From the heart, Ray |
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4 | Difference between Rhema and Logos. | Acts 10:44 | Emmaus | 63848 | ||
Ray, I agree that scripture is the word of God but not in the same sense that Jesus is the Word (Logos) of God as in John 1:1. One Word is God and the other is of God, but not God in Person. I believe there must be that distinction. Otherwise we have what some call Bibliolatry. Emmaus |
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5 | Difference between Rhema and Logos. | Acts 10:44 | Ray | 63849 | ||
Hi Emmaus, I agree with you. We have to know that God came as a historical person and not just a Word on the page. But as you inferred in your reference above to a passage in Luke, we can see in the words on the page the Word of God. I found 47 references to the "word of God" in the Scriptures. Only one, Revelation 19:13, to my mind speaks of the Person of God. Rev. 19:13, "And He is clothed with a robe dipped in blood; and His name is called The Word of God." Jesus is the Son of God, He was in the beginning with God. The Word was God. But the word of God, the Scriptures, is not God. That being said, I still find the existence of prayers with pronouns divisible by three to be significant for the praise of our triune God, for example. From the heart, Ray |
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