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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Greek use of koinos and akathartos | Acts 10:15 | Morant61 | 213737 | ||
Greetings MJH! Brother, I apologize. I seem to have left out one occurrence of 'koinos' in the LXX. It is also used in Prov. 15:23. Let me see if I can track the word in the translation. Using the ASV, koinos is translated as: Prov. 1:14 - 'one' purse. The word enclosed in '' represents the word translated from 'koinos'. Prov. 15:23 - This one is tough. I just did a quick translation of the LXX, but it does not seem to match the Hebrew translations we have. It reads something like 'and a good in common'. The NASB translates the phrase 'a timely word'. Prov. 21:9 - "in a house 'shared' with" Prov. 25:24 - same as above. Common, in the sense of 'shared' would fit all except 15:23. I am not sure how it is being used in that verse. But, none of the verses seem to use 'koinos' in the sense of impure or unclean. Let me know what you find in your research and I will do the same (if I get time to dig some more)! :-) Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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2 | Greek use of koinos and akathartos | Acts 10:15 | MJH | 213794 | ||
Part 1 of 2 Sorry for the length. Also, this is mainly about the final two paragraphs, not the interpretation I take, but you can respond to whatever. Tim, this is what I found. I wrote it as an essay and copied it here, so excuse the more formal approach. In Romans 14:14 we read, “I know and am convinced in the Lord Jesus that nothing is unclean in itself; but to him who thinks anything to be unclean, to him it is unclean.” The word translated into English as “unclean” is koinos (Strong’s 839). However, the word koinos literally means “common.” Why then do the translators use “unclean” and is that the best word to use? The use of “unclean” is chosen for two main reasons. 1) the obvious connection to impermissible foods which links it to Lev. 11; 2) the connection that common (koinos) has to unclean (akathartos Strong’s 169) found in Acts 10 and Mark 7. It is quite certain that “common” and “unclean” have a connection in the New Testament Scriptures. In Acts 10:14, after Peter sees all kinds of animals (we assume clean and unclean) descend in a sheet he hears a voice say, “Kill and eat.” Peter replies, "By no means, Lord, for I have never eaten anything common (koinos) or unclean (akathartos)” Here Peter insists that he has never eaten anything common or unclean. Therefore, we must assume there is some connection to the two words; yet, they are distinct. Unless we assume Peter to be redundant, there must be something different between something that is common (koinos) and unclean (akathartos). Another example from the New Testament is Mark 7:2, “…and had seen that some of His disciples were eating their bread with impure hands, that is, unwashed.” Here koinos is translated as impure, and impure due to unwashed hands. Now we know for a fact that the Old Testament has nothing to say about the common Israelite needing to wash his hands for them to be pure for eating. Yet, the Pharisaic rules of the day found a way to render unwashed hands, not as unclean (akathartos), but as common or impure (koinos.) So here again the word common is obviously connected to, but different from unclean. In the LXX translation of the Old Testament, unclean animals and other items found unclean are always translated with akathartos, and never with koinos. And again, koinos literally means common, not impure in classical Greek. So, why is it connected to impurity and things unclean? What are we to make of this? Hebrew Scriptures: There was an offering for the Temple that only the Levites and there families could eat. It is often referred to as the heave offering, but the Hebrew word is terumah. This basically was something that was “clean” – but because it was reserved for only the priestly caste, it was forbidden to the common man. Hence, terumah that was outside of the Temple environs became “common” and inedible – and the reverse is true as well – those things “common” were not permitted in the sanctified areas of the Temple. Also, the priests were required to wash their hands when performing in the Temple. (Ex. 30:18) Pharisaic law: These concepts were extended from the Temple environs to the every day life of Pius Jews (by man-made law). If someone “unsanctified” (i.e. Gentile) touched bread, it became “common” or unfit to eat, even though it conformed to the clean/unclean laws of the Torah. Likewise, the person that could render bread “common” was also referred to as “common.” Therefore we see a link between things common and things unclean. continued..... |
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3 | Greek use of koinos and akathartos | Acts 10:15 | Morant61 | 213810 | ||
Greetings MJH! There is a lot to digest in your posts my friend! :-) I would touch upon one quick point about translation issues in general. Words are not always just plug and play so to speak. One word can have a variety of meanings in different contexts, especially when used with other words. One thing I did notice in your two posts though is that there is not a lot of hard evidence that 'koinos' itself was used by the Jews to refer to food that was made 'unclean' by touching, ect. You present a lot of evidence for 'common' food, but not a lot of evidence that 'kainos' itself meant the same. The LXX evidence is difficult because 'kainos' is never used in reference to food at all in the LXX. The NT evidence is difficult because there is a connection between 'unclean' and 'common', but the text doesn't really spell out what the connection is. For instance, in Acts 'unclean' and 'common' could be two difference categories of food, or two words with the same meaning. The text itself would allow both options. Your posts were interesting reading my friend. As I get time, I will try to dig some more and let you know if I find anything interesting. Let me know if you find anything. :-) Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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4 | Greek use of koinos and akathartos | Acts 10:15 | MJH | 213811 | ||
Thanks for the kind comments. Certainly my post isn't the end of the discussion. I made some statements that ought to be backed up with more evidence and sources. What I posted here is more accurately my hypothesis based on the bit of research I did do, but could change after deeper digging. Your questions are exactly the questions needing more clarification. The time needed to go further will mean I won't be adding much for a while. I do hope to get a couple books from some universities (our library is connected to the colleges now...Yeah!)that have done some of this research already. Finding out if the Jews, who wrote Hebrew or Aramaic mostly in their first century writings, used 'koinos' in this way when speaking Greek may be impossible to proove. There are some Greek texts, but that's pretty much out of my league. MJH |
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