Results 1 - 6 of 6
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Is there another helper? | John 5:43 | Ray | 4778 | ||
John 5:32 says,"There is another who testifies of Me, and I know that the testimony which He gives about Me is true. John 5:43 says, "I have come in My Father's name, and you do not receive Me; if another comes in his own name, you will receive him." What would be your objection to capitalizing the word "another"? Would you agree with ..."if Another comes in His own name, you will receive Him." | ||||||
2 | Is there another helper? | John 5:43 | Hank | 4783 | ||
Ray, Jesus is clearly talking about two different "anothers" in these verses. John 5:37 identifies the Father as the "another" of verse 5:32. In John 5:43 the "another" refers to a false messiah. See Matthew 24:5. Regarding capitalization of "another" -- the word is used as an adjective, not a personal pronoun. Nouns and personal pronouns pertaining to all three Persons of the Trinity are capitalized in the NASB. Of course, in no case would the "another" of 5:43 be capitalized, because a false messiah is meant. By the way, Jesus' prediction in Matthew 24:5, "Many will come in my name, saying 'I am the Christ,' and will mislead many" began to be fulfilled in Apostolic times and, of course, there are deceivers amongst us today who make all sorts of wild and false claims. --Hank | ||||||
3 | Is there another helper? | John 5:43 | Ray | 4792 | ||
Hi Hank, I thank you very much for your reply to my question. My short question reads another helper and in that case the word another would be an adjective. But I believe that Another is as much a personal pronoun as the He of the end of the verse. Most but not all pronouns are capitalized in the NASB and certainly the last copyright has more than the original. I think that there is too much between verse 32 and the testimony of the Father in verse 38 for Him to be speaking of the Father's words. In other words the verses in between talk of John's testimony and the testimony of the works done. I thank you for your reference to Matthew 24:3 for it compares very well with John 5:43. Mt 24:3b, "Tell us, when will theses things happen, and what will be the sign of Your coming, and of the end of the age?" compared with Jn 5:43, "..if Another comes..." Let me tell you why I don't think that this another speaks of the false Christs. John 5:43 reads, "I have come in My Father's name, and you do not receive Me; if another comes in his own name, you will receive him." If another were the false Christ he wouldn't be coming in his own name, but in Christ's name. But you are right, "See that no one misleads you. For many will come in My name, saying 'I am the Christ', and will mislead many." Jesus said "I am" and we know who He is. The trouble is, many can be misled because English does not allow us to say "i am He". Truth does not allow us to say that. But it sure does show the contrast between man and the Man, Jesus doesn't it? Do you see why capitalization is important? |
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4 | Is there another helper? | John 5:43 | Hank | 4794 | ||
Ray, the interpretation I gave in my original answer is that agreed upon by two of my most respected Bible commentators, Charles Ryrie and John MacArthur. I have read the context surrounding these verses and fail to see any other reasonable interpretation that squares with the text.....And I will add an additional thought to the matter of capitalization upon which you appear to place a great deal of weight and about which I am not attempting to be critical. Nonetheless, I don't share your views about its importance for reasons that I will now outline. In the first place, capitalization as we use it was foreign to the Greek manuscripts from which we get our best New Testament texts. They were written in what is called "uncials" which were somewhat like our capital letters. In a real sense, everything was capitalized. They were also written without spaces between words, called "scriptio continua". The manuscript books were not divided into chapters and verses such as we have in our Bibles today. The nearest I can come to illustrating what one of these manuscripts might look like in English is this: "FORGODSOLOVEDTHEWORLDTHATHEGAVEHISOWNLYBEGOTTENSONTHATWHOEVERBELIEVESINHIMSHOULDNOTPERISHBUTHAVEETERNALLIFE". That is, of course, John 3:16. The point is this, Ray, that capitalization itself is a fairly new invention in language. And certainly the practice of capitalization of personal pronouns that refer to the Deity is newer still. While the NASB and NKJV follow this element of style, the KJV did not and most other modern versions do not, including the NIV and RSV. It may in some cases add clarity. Some feel that it shows respect for the Deity. Both are a matter of opinion and taste; neither is vital to the comprehension of a text that is otherwise rendered in clear, standard English. In summary, capitalization is far down on the list of my priorities. Correct interpretation based on context is the premier issue in Bible study. --Hank | ||||||
5 | Is there another helper? | John 5:43 | Ray | 4894 | ||
Hi Hank, I'm sorry I didn't thank you for your reply right away. What did your commentators say about Another as an adjective? What did they say about the false Christ coming in His name? What do you think about John 7:52? |
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6 | Is there another helper? | John 5:43 | Hank | 4963 | ||
Ray, to your first two questions, the answer is, Nothing more than I indicated in my first note. About John 7:52, I'm not sure what your point of emphasis is, if any, but here is the verse followed by a comment on it. "They answered and said to him, 'You are not also from Galilee, are you? Search, and see that no prophet arises out of Galilee.'" Scanning backward a few verses allows us to pick up the context. Verse 52 is the Pharisees' answer to the question put to them by Nicodemus in verse 51. Here, of course, the Pharisees showed their own ignorance. Jonah was a prophet and he had come from Galilee. --Hank | ||||||