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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Is Jesus addressing his mother abnormal? | John 2:4 | RaquelG | 243004 | ||
I know this seems irrelevant, but Jesus addressing his mother as "Woman" seems disrespectful. Is this just because the word he uses' translation into English is awkward, or is this meant to sound like a rebuke? Does anyone know a little about the verse's cultural context? | ||||||
2 | Is Jesus addressing his mother abnormal? | John 2:4 | DocTrinsograce | 243007 | ||
Hi, Raquel... The name Raquel means innocent. Do not worry about asking questions that might seem irrelevant. Everything in the Word of God is more relevant than all the wisdom of the world combined. You are correct that if we, in English, called our mother's "Woman" it would have a negative connotation. I do not doubt that if I had ever used that term on my mother that I would have received a severe trouncing! However, remember that as the gospels unfold, they are relating to us a narrative in the context of a time, place, and culture very different than our own. Note that our Lord uses this term speaking to Mary again in John 19:26. Also notice than in neither place is Mary offended. This term meant no disrespect. Perhaps it would be like my calling my mother -- if she still lived -- dear lady. John Gill, still an acknowledged expert in the ancient Jewish culture, says that the term was used, at that time, to show great respect, tenderness, and affection. In Him, Doc |
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Questions and/or Subjects for John 2:4 | Author | ||
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Mommapbs | ||
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gepc | ||
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brazos | ||
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mellow | ||
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Shobhan | ||
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sqkeener1955 | ||
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RaquelG | ||
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DocTrinsograce |