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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Me or me? | John 2:17 | Ray | 53300 | ||
Psalm 69 has a verse that speaks of "my folly and my wrongs". Because of that I do not think of that Psalm as being Messianic and would not capitalize pronouns as the Amplified does for Psalm 69:9. My question for John 2:17 is "Which version is most accurate in it's treatment of the word "me"? This is another question of capitalization. |
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2 | Me or me? | John 2:17 | srbaegon | 53302 | ||
Hello Ray A psalm is considered Messianic if any or all of a psalm refers to the Lord Jesus. In this case, the phrase you object to is definitely about David himself. On the other hand, verse 9 is speaking of Christ, and our proof is that John connected it in his gospel. Steve |
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Questions and/or Subjects for John 2:17 | Author | ||
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Ray | ||
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srbaegon |