Results 1 - 3 of 3
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Was Jesus actually in the tomb 3 days? | John 19:31 | Radioman | 7704 | ||
"Three days and three nights. (Matt 12:40) This phrase does not necessarily require that 72 hours elapse between Christ's death and resurrection, for the Jews reckoned part of a day to be as a whole day. Thus this prophecy can be properly fulfilled if the crucifixion occurred on Friday." (Ryrie Study Bible, Moody Press, 1976, 1978) . . . " 'Three days and three nights' (Matt 12:40)was an emphatic way of saying 'three days,' and by Jewish reckoning this would be an apt way of expressing a period of time that includes parts of 3 days. ... All sorts of elaborate schemes have been devised to suggest that Christ might have died on a Wednesday or Thursday, just to accommodate the extreme literal meaning of these words. But the original meaning would not have required that sort of wooden interpretaion." (MacArthur Study Bible, p. 1415, Word Publishing, 1997) . . . "THREE DAYS AND THREE NIGHTS. (Matt 12:40) Including at least part of the first day and part of the third day, a common Jewish reckoning of time." (Matt 12:40, Zondervan NASB Study Bible, Zondervan, 1999) |
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2 | Plural Sabbaths? Passover Clarification? | John 19:31 | Brent Douglass | 7783 | ||
The question of what day of the week the crucifixion took place is clearly a secondary issue being considered among brothers as to what the Bible actually says, NOT a question of fringe doctrines that divide. Nevertheless, the text needs to be carefully considered in the midst of what appears to be a simple dismissal of varying views (from the recently assumed view) without Biblical support. From the evidence shown in the earlier posts, it seems clear the term "3 days and 3 nights" doesn't in any way directly undermine a Friday (nor can we necessarily calculate the day based on a "wooden" application of this usage). Nevertheless, there still remains a question as to why it's been assumed in recent history to be a Friday; where is the Biblical evidence for Friday? We can say with certainty that the discovery of the empty tomb took place on Sunday -- the first day of the week (John 20:1); the day of the crucifixion is less clear. So far as I know, the only reference that could possibly be interpreted as referring to the day of the week of the crucifixion is the reference to the Sabbath. However, the very wording of the self-same reference ("because it was the day of preparation... for that Sabbath was a high day" -- Jn 19:31) deliberately adds the clarification that this was a special Passover Sabbath, NOT a weekly Sabbath (at the very minimum, NOT MERELY a weekly Sabbath); therefore, any preference for Friday based on the Sabbath is removed by the text itself. John makes a point of stating this at least twice in the passage. Notice also John 19:14, which confirms that the day of Christ's crucifixion was the day before a Passover-related holy day: "Now it was the day of preparation for the Passover." Every time the terms "day of preparation" or "preparation" are used in this passage, the context above requires them to be understood as "preparation for the Passover" NOT "preparation for the Friday evening Sabbath". Can someone with better Greek references at hand verify whether any of the Sabbath references to the crucifixion and resurrection (in John or in the other Gospels) are plural? I recall vaguely (whether correctly or incorrectly I can't verify) that at least one reference did refer to plural "Sabbaths" between the crucifixion and the resurrection, which would further indicate that Friday was not the day of the crucifixion. This should be fairly simple to verify for someone with the right materials or knowledge of Greek; I'm afraid I have neither at my disposal right now. A clearer understanding of the celebration of Passover Sabbaths would also be helpful. (I remember something about there being 2 actual Passover Sabbath days that are separate from the weekly Sabbath, but I know little else about them.) I apologize for my vagueness, but elaboration could really help clarify. |
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3 | Plural Sabbaths? Passover Clarification? | John 19:31 | Morant61 | 7799 | ||
Greetings Brent! I have enjoyed your posts on this topic! I hold to the traditional view, but I am open to other positions. Allow me to briefly address two of your points. 1) The term used in John 19:31 for the "day of preparation" is the Greek term 'paraskeue'. It usually refered to Friday. In fact, in modern Greek, it is the term for Friday. 2) Concerning the plural "Sabbaths", the singular and the plural forms seemed to have been used almost inter-changeably. Here is a list of all the plural occurances of the word "Sabbath". Mt. 12:1, 5, 10, 11, 12, 28:1; Mk. 1:21, 2:23, 24, 3:2, 4, 16:2; Lk. 4:16, 31, 6:2, 13:10, 24:1; Jn. 20:1, 19; Acts 13:14, 16:13, 17:2, 20:7; Col. 2:16. All the plural uses in relation to the death and resurrection of Christ appear in verses where the plural of 'Sabbath' is being used to refer to the "1st day of the week." I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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