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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | weeping | John 11:35 | corin | 173275 | ||
Jesus wept ? why Jesus wept ? weeping is not glorifying? God dislike ? |
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2 | weeping | John 11:35 | Hank | 173276 | ||
Why, you ask, did Jesus weep? The verb translated "wept" is used only here, John 11:35, in the entire New Testament, and it means a shedding of tears, an expression of deep sorrow, of intense grief. Jesus was God No one could affirm that fact any better or more incontrovertibly than John did in the prologue to his Gospel (see John 1:1-14). Jesus was also a Man. John records this vivid description of a distinctly human emotion: Jesus wept. He wept because He felt genuine grief in the death of His friend, Lazarus; and He was no doubt moved to compassion for Lazarus' sisters, Mary and Martha of Bethany, who also grieved in the loss of their brother. John was no Docetist: he affirms in this passage, as he did in other passages of his Gospel, the full humanity of Christ. And, as stated, he also affirms in his Gospel the full Deity of Jesus Christ. ..... The segment of your question that asks: "weeping is not glorifying? God dislike?" frankly doesn't make a great deal of sense to me, and strikes me as being rather impertient and presumptuous, not to mention fatuous and inane. I'll leave it to you to ponder just how God Incarnate could possibly do anything unglorifying to Himself or could dislike His own behavior. --Hank | ||||||
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Questions and/or Subjects for John 11:35 | Author | ||
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Candee | ||
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teragram123 | ||
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angelface | ||
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Hank | ||
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Bobby Conner | ||
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corin | ||
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Hank | ||
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Cashly | ||
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dbaggett49 | ||
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bert2001 | ||
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fullergg |