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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Mary - "maidservant" or "bondslave"? | Luke 1:48 | Arnold | 203633 | ||
This is a translation question. In the NASB, Jesus' mother Mary refers to herself as the Lord's "bondslave." In the KJV the word is "handmaiden" and in the NKJV it is "maidservant." The Greek word is Strong's #1399 - doule - and is defined by him as "a female slave." This is gender specific, in contrast to #1401 - doulos - which is "a slave." The latter has the masculine ending, and the former the feminine ending. Why, then, does the NASB (as well as other translations) render "doule" into English in a generic rather than a gender specific way? | ||||||
2 | Mary - "maidservant" or "bondslave"? | Luke 1:48 | Morant61 | 203641 | ||
Greetings Arnold! I'm not sure how much background you have in Greek, but any noun can have a masculine, feminine, or neuter ending to it. The meaning of the word has not changed, only the gender. Thus, in cases like Luke 1:48, there really isn't any reason to translate 'servant' in any special way since it refers to Mary and we know that she is female. :-) One instance in which the gender of a word would make a difference is if several people of different genders are mentioned and one wants to determine to which one a particular noun refers. Then, the gender of the noun could help make that determination. I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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Questions and/or Subjects for Luke 1:48 | Author | ||
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Ceeb | ||
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melca73 | ||
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Arnold | ||
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BradK | ||
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Morant61 |