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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Mary - "maidservant" or "bondslave"? | Luke 1:48 | Arnold | 203633 | ||
This is a translation question. In the NASB, Jesus' mother Mary refers to herself as the Lord's "bondslave." In the KJV the word is "handmaiden" and in the NKJV it is "maidservant." The Greek word is Strong's #1399 - doule - and is defined by him as "a female slave." This is gender specific, in contrast to #1401 - doulos - which is "a slave." The latter has the masculine ending, and the former the feminine ending. Why, then, does the NASB (as well as other translations) render "doule" into English in a generic rather than a gender specific way? | ||||||
2 | Mary - "maidservant" or "bondslave"? | Luke 1:48 | BradK | 203637 | ||
Hello Arnold, I will do some further checking from a more qualified source and get back to you. I do note that neither NT Greek scholars, AT Robertson or Marvin Vincent make any comment on this in their Word studies! The DBL:Greek confirms the general meaning of 'doule" as, "slave woman, female servant (Lk 1:38, 48; Ac 2:18) Two additional translations that make the distinction are the ASV and Young's Literal Translation: "For he hath looked upon the low estate of his handmaid: For behold, from henceforth all generations shall call me blessed." (ASV) "Because He looked on the lowliness of His maid-servant, For, lo, henceforth call me happy shall all the generations," (YLT) (the 1890 Darby Bible does as well) Speaking the Truth in Love, BradK |
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Questions and/or Subjects for Luke 1:48 | Author | ||
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Ceeb | ||
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melca73 | ||
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Arnold | ||
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BradK | ||
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Morant61 |