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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Is "to salt" to mean "to destroy?" | Mark 9:49 | MJH | 164721 | ||
Could this passage mean: "For everyone [who is sent to hell] will be destroyed by fire." ? Reasons... The context from (42) causing "one of these little ones who believes in me to sin...", it would be better to be cast into the sea (also known as the abyss) and then if any part of you causes you to sin it would be better to remove that part than to be cast into the valley of Gehinnom. This is followed by the "odd" passage in question. The following are my reasons for interpreting this text as I did above: 1) If the Jews in the first century spoke Hebrew (this works even if you believe they spoke Aramaic as well.) then the Greek of Jesus words are a translation from the Hebrew that Jesus spoke. This passage can be translated word for word from the Greek back to Hebrew without changing the word order. (Which is not common between the languages.) 2) In Hebrew the word salt, from the base "m-l-h" can mean to destroy. (Lot's wife; Is 51:6 the words translated "to vanish away" is actually the words "to salt". Judges 9:45 Abimelech destroys Shechem and "sows it with salt." Deut 29:3, salt is a symbol of destruction. The “salt sea” is also known as the “dead” sea.) All of these are the same in Hebrew. So salting a place or person is often to destroy. 3) Most explanations of this verse have to do with purifications; so much so that some translations of the Bible actually put it in the text. (Always a dangerous thing to put an interpretation into the text of a translation.) They arrive at this from the use of salt in the sacrificial system. 4) Two Dutch exegetes - Hugo Grotius in 1641 and Johannes Clericus in 1714 - proposed this very interpretation. (I am unaware if Clericus got his interpretation from Grotius.) 5) This works the same with Aramaic since the root of the word “salt” is the same. If Jesus was using this term by drawing from either a Hebrew idiom or the Text of scripture that matches the “destruction” of Gehinnom, is certainly is a plausible interpretation. It matches the context of all that came before. THE PROBLEM: The problem I have unresolved is the next verse. If “salt” in verse 49 is to be rendered as “destroy” then verse 50 posses a problem that I have not sifted through. If anyone has some thoughtful comments I would love to read them. I have read several commentaries, so no need to quote them unless it pertains to the discussion. There are after all at least 15 different interpretations out there. I want to hear from others if there is any possibility of this being correct. As you may know, I like to try to get into the mind of the first hearers of the text and hope to hear what they heard. Being western and removed by language culture and 2000 years makes that a challenge….but a fun one. God bless, MJH |
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2 | Is "to salt" to mean "to destroy?" | Mark 9:49 | lionheart | 164771 | ||
MJH, You pose an interesting question. Vs 49 refers to being salted with fire,Vs 50 may seem somewhat of a delima, check out Matt 5:13 and folowing verses if I'm looking at this correctly this should shed light on Mk 9:50. Back in Jesus day salt was a valuable comodity. It remained valuable as long as it retained it's saltyness other wise it was thrown out and trampled under foot, it was not an unheard of practice for invading armies or in the case of the retreating army to take this salt which was no longer of any use and put it in the fields rendering them useless for any kind agricultural production. Salt is a seasoning and a preservitive. Jesus tells us salt is good,now going back to Mk 9:49 Could the usage of salt and fire be a reference to fire being the trying or cleansing agent here? I hope I havent butcherd this too badly. In Christ, lionheart |
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3 | Is "to salt" to mean "to destroy?" | Mark 9:49 | Pilgrim2eternity | 164811 | ||
Awesome stuff!! I just signed on yesterday and read some of your threads; lionheart,Doc and MJH. I Love it. This stuff is the meat and potatoes. I'm no where as learned as you but my imediate thought on the salt issue is what Lionheart says near the end. What is salt used for? seasoning and preserving. And in the case of of Lot's wife and references to destruction: it could be the preservation of one in the non-presence of God for eternity, a place you don't want to be!! Then there is the good part of salt, as in seasoning. It is interesting that it shows the duality of things. Such as a little wine is good for the stomach (1 Timothy 5:23)but to much can lead to trouble(Proverbs 20:1). And the story of 2 prisoners given a Bible one reads it and is saved the other tears out the pages, eats them, chokes and dies. The Bible has the pathway fo us to life and death. Love is Enough Pilgrim2eternity Stay Hungry |
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4 | Is "to salt" to mean "to destroy?" | Mark 9:49 | lionheart | 164818 | ||
Pilgrim2eternity, Greetings and welcome to the forum. Gods Word is amazing,we truly have the words of life right at our fingertips. I want to encourage you to be a 2 Timothy 2:15 disciple of Jesus Christ. You'll not be disappointed. In Christ, lionheart |
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