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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Mat 17:20 vs I Cor 13:2? | Mark 9:23 | Searcher56 | 8779 | ||
Chris ... Here you are asking another question. He changes the pronoung in vv. 9-10 and only covers two if the items in vv. 1-3. It possible to prophecy all mysteries and have all knowledge B-U-T if there is no love, the person is nothing. Verses 1-3 are possible ... and Paul is not saying any different. Again, all he is saying no matter what you do, if you do not have love, you are nothing. My answer is still the same. Steve |
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2 | I Cor. 13:2 vs 13:9; all knowledge? | Mark 9:23 | Chris | 8781 | ||
Steve, I dont understand what you are saying. If one can prophesy all mysteries and all knowledge, why does Paul say we only prophesy in part and know in part? How are these not contradictory? What are you saying about pronouns? |
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3 | I Cor. 13:2 vs 13:9; all knowledge? | Mark 9:23 | Searcher56 | 8792 | ||
Chris ... The pronouns in 1 Cor 13:1-3 are I (and there is the word "if"). In verse 9, it is we (where there is no word "if). In verse 9, he also does not mention faith. Now is Paul talking about himself about having partial prophecy and knowledge? Probably, but the other points are not included in verse 9. He says we only do these two in part, because that is our limitation. There is no contractiction between verse 2 and 9, nor with the issue of faith. Steve |
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