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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | What does "remaining in Him" really mean | Mark 15:5 | Morant61 | 178981 | ||
Greetings NewPilgrim! You wrote: "There is a discrepency between the two greek words for sin in the passage..." In what sense is there a discrepency between the two greek words? The only difference is that the first word is a noun and the second is a verb. Also, you wrote: "Therefore, when we apply this understanding to John 3:9 we can see that when he speaks of "that which is born of God" he is referring to our spirit, rather than our entirety of spirit AND flesh." This would seem to be quite a stretch for several reasons. First of all, 'spirit' is a neuter noun, while the pronoun used in 1 John 3:9 is a masculine pronoun. Thus, it can't be a reference to the neuter spirit. Secondly, 'spirit' has not yet been used in this passage anyway, so it cannot be the antecedent of the pronoun. In my understanding, it is much more likely that 1 John 3:9 refers to habitual sin, since this is one of the possible meanings of the present tense. This understanding also does not conflict with 1 John 1:8-9 or 1 John 2:1. Interesting post my friend! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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2 | What does "remaining in Him" really mean | Mark 15:5 | jlhetrick | 179015 | ||
Hi Tim, Detailed looks at the original languages usually bore and confuse me. This is only because it is so far beyond my abilities. That is one reason I am thankful for those such as yourself who are able to take on such tasks. Your post was very helpful in keeping me focused. thanks and God bless, Jeff |
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