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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Man, man, or ...? Who blasphemes here? e | Matt 9:3 | Timothy Paul | 47861 | ||
Dear Ray, It is a real honor to reply to your question, being such a newcomer myself. I have found two more translations that I found to be of interest: Matthew 9:3 And lo, certain of the scribes said within themselves, This one doth speak evil. "Young's Literal Translation" And behold, certain of the scribes said to themselves, This [man]blasphemes. "Darby Translation" I have been told that the KJV is the most accurate, and after finding numerous "errors" in the NIV, I have been inclined to agree. these two translations I sent to you are very close to the KJV. I have been told, that the italics mean that the word is not in the original Scriptures, but was added by the translater for clarification purposes. So, why does the KJV have the words man blasphemeth in italics while the NASB and DARBY, among others, have only man or fellow italicized? YLT would not, of course have ANY italics. I agree with your ideas on capitalization, and do not feel right when reading a book that does not capitalize He or Him, when referring to our Lord. But how close does that apply here? The scribes were not referring to God, but in their eyes at least, just a "fellow" making outlandish claims. In this instance I would excuse the scribes from their non-use of capitals, but when I am referring to our Lord, I will continue to capitalize. In His Service, Tim |
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2 | Man, man, or ...? Who blasphemes here? e | Matt 9:3 | Morant61 | 47961 | ||
Greetings Tim! The Greek text says, "This one blasphemes". 'This one' is a masculine singular pronoun, so it can be translated as 'This man'. Your Fellow Tim and Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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