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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Is Jesus Gods son? | Matt 3:17 | Emmaus | 71003 | ||
Tony, See Matt 3:16-17 for a manifestation of the Trinity. We believe "the Trinity of the deity to be consubstantial, so that the Father and the Son and the Holy Spirit are undivided without confusion, eternal without time, equal without difference: because it is not the one person who fills the unity of the Trinity, but the same essensce.." The Son, the second Person of the Holy Trinity became man, Jesus. Below is a link that addreses the subject in greater length. http://www.christusrex.org/www1/CDHN/believe.html#TRINITY Emmaus |
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2 | Is Jesus Gods son? | Matt 3:17 | sisterkath | 71007 | ||
At John 17:3; [Jesus prayed to his Father]: This is eternal life, that they know thee the only true God ["who alone art truly God," NE], and Jesus Christ whom thou hast sent." (Notice that Jesus referred not to himself but to his Father in heaven as "the only true God) John 20:17,RS: "Jesus said to her [Mary Magdalene], 'Do not hold me, for I have not yet ascended to the Father; but go to my brethren and say to them, I am ascending to my Father and your Father, to my God and your God." (So to the resurrected Jesus, the Father was God, just as the Father was God to Mary Magdalene. Interestingly, not once in Scripture do we find the Father addressing the Son as 'my God.") Reasoning from the Scriptures |
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3 | Is Jesus Gods son? | Matt 3:17 | Truthfinder | 71023 | ||
At Isaiah 9:6 Jesus Christ is prophetically called ´El Gib·bohr', "Mighty God". When applying to Jehovah, ´Elo·him' is used as a plural of majesty, dignity, or excellence. (Ge 1:1) Regarding this, Aaron Ember wrote: "That the language of the O[ld] T[estament] has entirely given up the idea of plurality in . . . [´Elo·him'] (as applied to the God of Israel) is especially shown by the fact that it is almost invariably construed with a singular verbal predicate, and takes a singular adjectival attribute. . . . [´Elo·him'] must rather be explained as an intensive plural, denoting greatness and majesty, being equal to The Great God."-The American Journal of Semitic Languages and Literatures, Vol. XXI, 1905, p. 208. Also at John 1:1 Ha Logos "the Word" (Jesus) is referred to as "theos" and indeed Jesus deserves to be called "theos" (note there is no indifinite article in Greek) but in English we place "a" for a divine one in this case for a proper translation of the Greek. Note too that John did Not use Ha (the definite article when referencing the Word, thus making it clear that the Word was distinct from "ha theos" "the GOD", Jesus' Father and his God. Truthfinder |
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